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02:00 - 19:0019:00 - 00:00

02:03
So checking every ideal be principal is the same as checking just the prime ideals apparently. Also apparently you can't ease this to just checking the maximal ideals. Sure.

But then the book says that, because of the first proposition I made, somehow a regular local domain of dimension $1$ is a principal ideal domain. Breaking that down, it's because it has a unique maximal ideal that can be written down with $1$ generator. But didn't we *just* say it was not sufficient to only check the maximal ideals? What is going on?
02:18
Question about a certain step in a proof:
Why/ What was the impetus for introducing the $f$ and $g$ functions? I see how they work "nicely", but when I originally tried to prove this the first time I attempted to do it with what was given in the original statement
02:33
@BigSocks there are only two prime ideals, the zero ideal and the unique maximal ideal, no?
Dumb question: suppose I have random variables $X_1, X_2, \dots$ with mean $0$. Suppose $\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\text{Var}(X_n) < \infty$. Why is it the case that for any $\epsilon > 0$, $\epsilon^{-2}\sum_{n = M + 1}^{\infty}\text{Var}(X_n) \to 0$ as $M \to \infty$?
@Thorgott oh cuz dim 1 means you don't have any other ideals in between right?
yeah that's gotta be it
yeah
thanks again
I suppose we could write the sum as $\sum_{n=M+1}^{t}\text{Var}(X_n) = \sum_{n=1}^{t}\text{Var}(X_n) - \sum_{n=1}^{M}\text{Var}(X_n)$
02:39
oh also "local domain with principal maximal ideal of dimension at least equal to 2" somehow implies "not a principal ideal"
that I have looked around for like 2 hours and I can't see why
and then let $t, M \to \infty$... oh. That must be it.
it would free me of this remark
The idea is that they want to work with the function $f$ instead of the vector $u$, because that allows them to use the fact that multiplication of transformation matrices corresponds to composition of linear transformations (the middle equality).
I'm not a huge fan of that, though, so let me offer an alternative. Let $v_1,...,v_n$ denote the basis $\beta$ of $V$ and write $e_1,...,e_n$ for the standard basis vectors in $K^n$. Then $[T]_{\beta}^{\gamma}e_i=[T(v_i)]_{\gamma}$ by definition (remember multiplying with $e_i$ from the right returns the $i$-th column). Now we can write $[u]_{\bet
@BigSocks you mean "not a PID"?
yeah I did
completely missed that
evidently I should go to bed, but I kinda wanna do this
PIDs always have dim 1
PIDs that aren't fields, I should say
02:47
I am here, yet again, realizing I am a noob
would a field just have dim 0 or what
never really thought of it, but that's kinda neat ok
field <=> dim 0 domain
@Clarinetist Right, note that the $\epsilon^{-2}$ is completely irrelevant. This also has nothing to do with random variables, it's a general fact about convergent series and the proof is as you say. Be careful about the order, though. You first take $t\rightarrow\infty$ and, then, in a separate step, $M\rightarrow\infty$.
@Thorgott. Thanks, I'm going to go over this proof to see what you mean
Thanks @Thorgott! one last question... suppose $S_j = X_1 + \cdots + X_j$. I have that for any $h > 0$, $$\mathbb{P}\left(\sup_{i \geq 1}|S_{k + i} - S_k| \geq h \right) \leq \dfrac{1}{h^2}\sum_{j=k+1}^{\infty}\sigma^2_j$$ where $\sigma^2_j$ denotes the variance of $X_j$ (mean-zero independent random variables). How do you make the leap from this to $$\mathbb{P}\left(\sup_{n, k \geq N}|S_{n} - S_k| \geq h \right) \leq \dfrac{2}{h^2}\sum_{j=N+1}^{\infty}\sigma^2_j$$
The professor mentioned something about how you add and subtract some amount, but I'm definitely not seeing it
02:58
@Thorgott, not that you can change it now, but should the expression: $[u]_{\beta}=\sum_{i=1}^nu_ie_i$ actually be: $[u]_{\beta}=\sum_{i=1}^nu_i\mathbf{v_i}$?
Lol, and after sorting through 5 books, no one seems to describe this step in detail
@Clarinetist, I've seen that before in some course I took. I don't remember when and I had memorized the steps....but had zero comprehension of what was occurring when I did it.
That's promising lol
I don't get why this material is so poorly taught and explained
I think I'm at book 7 now
@Clarinetist hmm, I don't see it
@dc3rd no, $[u]_{\beta}$ is a vector in $K^n$, not in $V$, $\sum_{i=1}^nu_iv_i$ is just $u$ (by definition)
If for a field I say:
Ordered field
For all $x \in F$ such that $x < z$, we have $x < y$, is it true that $y \geq z$?
ok im stupid
its true because if y<z then y<y
03:17
indeed
So how you are using $e_{1} \dots e_{n}$ is throwing me for a loop. How are you relating $K^{n}$ to everything? Is it $K^{n} \to V$? So you're rewriting the basis vectors of $V$ as the linear combination of the standard basis vectors?
$[u]_{\beta}$ is a vector in $K^n$ by definition, no?
03:40
Yes
So I can write $[u]_{\beta}=\sum_{i=1}^nu_ie_i$ for some scalars $u_1,...,u_n$, since $e_1,...,e_n$ is a basis for $K^n$. Of course, that says nothing different than that $u_1,...,u_n$ are the entries of the vector $[u]_{\beta}$. And, by definition of $[u]_{\beta}$, these entries make the equality $\sum_{i=1}^nu_iv_i=u$ in $V$ true.
Ah yes. Ok that makes sense to me now. Thank you
@dc3rd @dc3rd if you're doing my book, all the linear algebra you need is in there.
03:55
But what if I wanted to learn more @TedShifrin?.... I have it in my head to have a deep understanding of Lin Alg because it is everywhere.
I also enjoy it just for the sake of it as well...............referencing the idea in that Halmos's paper again.....
There's not much more. Jordan canonical form is it.
Your book doesn't delve into inner product spaces too much though, or maybe I haven't arrived there yet.
You're nuts.
I start with all the dot product stuff and emphasize it throughout .
I am less formal, so you're impressed by the formality and abstraction. Have fun!
Well yes... I meant beyond the dot product. But reading the contents of your book vs Insel you do cover it all except canonical form. Do you cover adjoint operators? I do like your book for that reason, being able to understand the concepts in plain english
If you understand the dot product, and you understand abstract vector spaces, then you understand inner product spaces (with the exception that you maybe need to learn a little bit about how the complex dot product behaves). There is no interesting change in the way you manipulate them when you move to the abstract context; the ideas are identical, things are just less often written in components.
There is still some value in learning the more general language but I didn't get a lot out of it until I started learning graduate differential geometry.
04:07
FYI, the adjoint is the transpose. It's everywhere. And everywhere in stat.
You are overly enamored with learning fancy stuff. Quite honestly, I'm worried about your mastering the basics.
@TedShifrin Damn....that hit home because I think you are right.
Blunt, but truth.
And this is the advantage that having people around who have mastered the field to provide guidance to you provides.......I'm going to have to reconcile this
04:47
Hey all
@dc3rd Answered an old regression question of yours. It would've annoyed me to leave that unanswered.
Thanks @Clarinetist tomorrow is a stats day for me so I'm going to give it a good read. I look forward to it. Just skimmed it so I have something to look forward to.
Dr. Shifrin, your linear algebra lectures remind me so much of precalculus.
In fact, your lectures are almost verbatim to how I learnt precalculus. It's so interesting.
@TedShifrin
@polite not what we consider precalculus in the US!
05:04
@TedShifrin I learnt precalculus from a US curriculum, so that's definitely not true!
Magma and sage must've really changed the game for number theory and so
Imagine having either one of them 50 years ago, you'd have been the grand wizard of the maths department
Vectors in some precalc, but not most ... no linear maps
I meant in particular how you introduced vectors, how you talked about thinking of vector subtraction
It was verbatim how I learnt it in precalc
It was almost dejá vu
I wouldn't be surprised if you influenced my precalc education, even
05:10
Students screw up subtraction, regardless
I doubt that!
Perhaps you did, since you taught at the same company and most likely left feedback
Oh, you're talking about AOPS? Their precalc class was disappointing. Not at all typical US curriculum, btw.
I had lots of complaints, indeed.
The way they handled vectors was almost verbatim to how you did
Very intuitively in R^2
05:17
I don't remember, honestly.
I did share all the supplementary exercises and stuff I did. Who knows what happened with it?
I can't say for sure of course, but I just recall that in the linear algebra part, there were often more pictures than words. Haha.
 
1 hour later…
06:21
Has anyone here ever participated in an integration bee?
123
123
Hello World..
1
Q: How is angular velocity of both these bodies equal here?

user15072279 Here there is Swaraj who is looking at a bus at which behind there is K+G. My teacher says that Angular velocity =(Theta / time)of the bus and K+ g is equal when they appear to be at same point by Swaraj. Now , my question is how is it possible since time and theta for both appear to be differen...

never been in a bee of any sort :-)
06:36
hello mathematiks
Is there a term for the sequence generated as the product of another sequence, i.e., $b_n = \prod_{m=0}^n a_m$. Does one refer to $b$ as a ____ of $a$?
@copper.hat does that sting?
well, i used to get hives, does that count? :-)
@copper.hat Eczema?
uticaria
06:40
@jonem partial products of the infinite product
cats invariably dig their claws into me. it is just a matter of time.
λογιστική
<—- loves cats
accounting???
06:42
@TedShifrin I'm allergic :(
well, i have been bitten by many dogs, but never by a cat, so i guess that it a plus for cats
@zacts are you Greek?
@copper.hat no
Getting bitten by many dogs... Perhaps an avoidable scenario.
you would think. the last time was by a poodle while riding my mountain bike in the nearby hills.
Can't outbike a poodle? ;)
06:44
@zacts why did you write accounting?
@copper.hat it's from Sir Thomas Heath's book on A History of Greek Mathematics Vol I
@politeproofs sharing a path with people i need to give way :-)
Unlucky indeed then
εντάξει
there is also ἁριθμητική
06:46
i was bitten while cycling in mexico, ended up getting rabies shots
arithmetic
and once while roller blading. that one was funny in retrospect.
and was attacked by a neighbour's pitbull while cycling near my house...
i like dogs, and they generally like me. i think.
I got bitten through jacket and pants by a rot when I was attending a geometry conference at Park City in the snow in 1977.
oooh, they are big strong animals.
I like dogs, but I love cats.
my cat is going to have babies.
kittens hopefully
06:52
That'll be a big brood.
a cat-harthis
wine o'clock. something from nz.
LOL, copper
07:15
Spivak just did something illegal.
He defined the distance between points $(a,b)$ and $(c,d)$ to be $\sqrt{(a-c)^2 + (b-d)^2}$
But this should almost certainly be a theorem, not a definition!
Why would that be a theorem?
@copper.hat Because we don't know that it gives the distance between two points.
Specifically, we would need to prove Pythag first.
it is just a definition.
This got me thinking
that's good!
07:24
Is there any analytical proof of the Pythagorean theorem, which we actually use to justify the euclidean norm, correct?
I know there's one where you can draw two triangles in $\mathbb{R}^2$
But that's not perfectly analytical, as it requires a drawing
coordinate geometry satisfies Euclid's axioms. the Pythagorean theorem follows from Euclid's axioms.
Who cares about Euclid's axioms? Weren't some of them false, too?
I fail to remember which, but I am fairly certain I remember reading that at least one was proven false
Ok. But in my question . Is there any Euclid axiom used. I can search rest on my own just tell which axiom is it
They are axioms. You need to understand just how amazing it was for Euclid (and all contributors) to formalise these things at that time.
07:33
@copper.hat ok but which one should I use ?. Yes it is amazing
Well, the 5th postulate.
Hahahahah
I like how this person is replying to you.
@user15072279 What are you asking me?
@copper.hat I am asking in my question that I sent to you sir.
What do you mean you sent to me???
07:35
Are you talking about the postulate for my question
@copper.hat Didn't get a PhD just to be called Sir...
1
Q: How is angular velocity of both these bodies equal here?

user15072279 Here there is Swaraj who is looking at a bus at which behind there is K+G. My teacher says that Angular velocity I.e(Theta / time)of the bus and K+ g is equal when they appear to be at same point by Swaraj. Now , my question is how is it possible since time and theta for both (Bus and K+G)appear...

This sir
@copper.hat I sent earlier. I think you were not seeing this. Sorry to interrupt
This is not an on demand question answering service!
If you can help or anyone , pls do help
@copper.hat The question is in the mail. It'll be there on monday.
(perhaps a poorly timed joke?)
07:37
:-).
@user15072279 your question is too vague and i am going to bed shortly so i don't have the energy to unravel what your diagram is and what you are asking. you will probably get an answer on mse.
how does my proof look: mathb.in/49379
how is it wrong?
There is no value in having the $a$ there. you can just multiply across by ${1 \over a}$.
stay as simple as makes sense.
I thought I misread it, but I didn't.
This line in particular: $a+ar+ar^{2}+\cdots+ar^{k}=\frac{a(r^{k}-1)}{r-1}$
that's the line out of the book
It even contradicts what you are trying to prove.
I also agree with copper.hat, the $a$ is unnecessarily complicating things. You can factor it out for now!
07:42
It looks ok to me, what do you think is wrong with it?
missing a $+1$.
Yes
Subtle.
I just wanted to double check. This is the first proof like this I've done in a while. I'm just getting into this.
But not only that @copper.hat, the rest of his proof doesn't work because he assumes that it holds for the rest of the proof.
So his proof would be entirely different, it's not just one typo.
(If it were one typo, I wouldn't say that proof doesn't work.)
Here is another proof. Suppose $S=1+r+...+r^n$. Then $rS = r + r^2+...+r^{n+1}$ and so $(1-r)S = 1-r^{n+1}$. Dividing across by $1-r$ gives the result.
You could also multiply $S$ by $a$ to get the desired result for an arbitrary first term.
:)
07:47
ok folks, good night!
Have a good night @copper.hat!
thanks @copper.hat
08:33
Do you need magic stone of power ranger to learn Algebraic Topology ?
09:24
yes
 
1 hour later…
10:30
@EdwardEvans I don't think there's a good translation
11:00
if M is an A module and we get B module M_B = B\otimes_A M as an extension of scalar, then M_B is both A and B module?
f:A->B a ring homom.
@EdwardEvans "per adattarsi"= "to fit"
11:30
I have confusion regarding revision questions. I have solved a lot of questions of chapter complex numbers in one notebook of 300 pages. Now, some questions are similar to other questions . Some questions have sub parts equal to sub parts of other questions. Some questions are easy and some are very difficult. Now , my questions is how to revise the questions . Should I revise all of these questions ? How should I select the questions that I need to revise.
So , it is basically also how to revise the chapter for a test
 
2 hours later…
13:18
Quick question: Let a,b,p be numbers in (0;1) and z>1, is it true that
(ap)^z + b^z(1-p)^z <= (ap+b(1-p))^z
if yes, how can I show it?
You want to know wether $x^z+y^z \leq (x+y)^z$. You can derive $x^z+y^z - (x+y)^z$ wrt x and if you manage to show the derivative is negative and that the value at 0 is negative, you win
ah ok, with respect to x, i tried with respect to z. but there is a slight problem, as I made a typo. it should be (ap)^z + b^z(1+p^z)
again typo 1-p^z next to b^z
13:59
@AlessandroCodenotti You mean that $Z(f_1,\dots,f_n,x_{n+1}g-1)\cong Z(f_1,\dots,f_n)\cap D(g)$, or sth deeper?
Because that's the only instance where I've seen the trick come about, and it's pretty useful I guess?
Wait, that should be the empty set, nvm
I forgot the assumption that $g$ shared the common zeroes of the $f_i$
14:55
Does anyone understand the remark that I underscored? I would think that we aren't looking for zeroes of the $(n-d)\times (n-d)$ minors, but we're just looking for points such that these minors are not invertible.
the minor is the determinant of the submatrix
ohhhhhh
stupid formulation then, (n-d)x(n-d) minor
they should written, the minor of the (n-d)x(n-d) submatrix
but thx!
Then, they could just say the "determinant of the (n-d)x(n-d) submatrix"
Glad to help
oh wait I think they meant
there are $(n-d)\cdot (n-d)$ minors
right ye no that's what they said
I didn't read properly, because I didn't know the def
that $\times$ put me on the wrong track entirely
15:10
Why would there be $(n-d)^2$ minors? I think they do mean the determinants of (n-d) x (n-d) submatrices
I believe there are ${n\choose d}^2$ such minors
oh ye
sry idd
what you say idd
Having rank >=k means exactly that a minor of size $k\times k$ is nonzero
yea no sure
now that I know it's the determinant, it all makes sense haha
Cool! :)
15:36
@love_sodam yes
15:59
So lets say you have a (nontrivial) ultraproduct of all the $\overline{F}_p$ 's, in a way that the whole thing is countable. does this have a transcendental element?
like maybe you take $[(1,2,3,...)]$ and that could be transcendental?
or could you just write $x= [(1,2,3,...)]$? I think I didn't sleep enough and am confusing obvious things
what does countability have anything to do with this?
I want to end up with something that isn't $\Bbb C$
it's a fair question
I am guessing/hoping you could somehow get $\overline{\Bbb Q}$ but I am hesitant to think so so quickly
17:04
@BigSocks If the ultraproduct is countable musn't the filter be principal so you just get one of the $\overline{F}_p$ back?
there are recursive ultraproducts. makes the whole thing countable and the ultrafilter is not principal
sorry for being so curt
there are some uniformity considerations I guess
but uh, yeah, am I being a fool? can you just say that $x = [id]$ is a reasonable thing to say? probably not idk
Never heard of recursive ultraproduct, I'm afraid I cannot help
@Thorgott thanks :)
17:09
well just on the field theory though?
assuming it makes sense to have it be countable?
A countable algebraically closed field of characteristic zero is either $\overline{\Bbb Q}$ or contains an element trascendental over $\Bbb Q$ but that's obvious
right that much I am clear on
So you need some properties of your construction to exclude the first case
Which is why I don't think it can be done by field theory alone
but I want it to be $\overline{\Bbb Q}$
oh ok I see
So what's a recursive ultraproduct? Because that surely cannot be done with a standard one
17:18
same thing kinda but the ultrafilter you can think of as coming from the Boolean algebra of recursive subsets of $\omega$
Recursive as in computability theory? This is very far from the kind of set theory that I do
right yeah. what kind of set theory do you do?
Descriptive set theory, I think about Polish group actions mostly
oh ok. much larger stuff
Yeah usually they are not even locally compact groups because those are easier for weird reasons
17:25
hmm I know nothing about that
lemme google
aha, so Lie groups, $\Bbb Q$, $\Bbb Q_p$
I think Lie groups are much nicer than whatever Alessandro thinks about
but you said you didn't mess with that
right^
Usually automorphism groups of countable structures
Some people also think about Diff(M) for smooth manifolds and Homeo(X) for topological spaces but those are very hard and not understood
I mean from the dynamical point of view that I'm interested in. They are well understood in other senses I suppose
groups are hard
im abandoning groups
17:45
@BalarkaSen truth
17:59
runs rings around a @Balarka
g'day, demonic @Alessandro, @BigSocks, @Thor, and Balarka.
Hey there @TedShifrin
hi
Salut, @Astyx.
Teddy
@TedShifrin good morning.
18:07
Hi, @robjohn.
hi Ted
Ted is too popular.
18:24
Let $V$ be an $n$ -dimensional vector space over $K$ and $T \in L(V)$ such that $(T-\lambda I)^{n}=0,(\lambda \in K)$ and $(T-\lambda I)^{n-1} \neq 0 .$ Prove that there is a basis $\mathcal{B}$ of $V$ such that
$$
[T]_{\mathcal{B}}=\left(\begin{array}{cccc}
\lambda & 1 & & 0 \\
& \ddots & \ddots & \\
& & \ddots & 1 \\
0 & & & \lambda
\end{array}\right)
$$
I got the idea but in binomial calculation I got stuck
Somebody please help
I will give you outline so for nilpotent operator we have basis $v,Tv,T^{2}v,....,T^{n-1}v
So we here $(T-\lambda I)^{n}=0$ is nilpotent
So I have basis according to that
What binomial calculation?
I am able to prove for case 2,3,4,5 that matrix has this form as given in question but not for in general n
@TedShifrin
What's different about $n$ from say, $3$ or $4$?
@TedShifrin I am not able to get explicit binomial form
18:32
For $3 & 4 $ I can able to do that with brut calculation
You don't want to expand $(T-\lambda I)^n$. No calculation needed.
It is needed for n=2,3,4 ; it will give you some condition which makes your calculation easy
So how to tackle this ?
No calculation. You gave an outline. Why did you not use that?
18:35
you merely have to calculate that the matrix has the desired form in the basis you just described
Well, almost described.
@Thorgott @TedShifrin I do not get that
we talked about this before, I'm pretty sure
@Thorgott @TedShifrin Please drop some hint
I told you what you have to do already
18:37
If $T^n=0$, you said to use the basis $v, Tv, T^2v, \dots$ (assuming you chose $v$ correctly). How are you going to apply that?
@TedShifrin what I am doing is Say I have basis ${v,Tv,....T^{n-1}v$
@TedShifrin what I am doing is Say I have basis ${v,Tv,....T^{n-1}v$
That assumed $T^n=0$. You do not have that.
I am not getting you point here (assuming you chose $v$ correctly).
No I have basis of form $v,(T-\lambda)(v) , (T-\lambdaI)^{2}v , .....} like that
@TedShifrin
So how to do you write the matrix of a linear transformation with respect to a basis?
So I just apply T to each of this basis vector
and express each in terms of basis set
@TedShifrin
18:43
So, have you done that?
Yes that is where I need explicit binomial
calculation
So take T(v) = a (v) + b ((T-\lambda)(v)) + c(T-\lambdaI)^{2}v now my aim is to find a,b,c,...
So how to do this ?
18:46
If $v_1=v$ and $v_2=(T-\lambda I)v_1$, what is $Tv_1$?
IT is T(v)
We're supposed to write everything in terms of our basis, remember?
For 2 it is easier to calculate
It is just (a-\lambda)v1+ b(T(v1))
so we get a = lambda and b =
1
18:51
Do NOT do that. Use only what I wrote down.
Hello Dr. Shifrin!
hi, polite.
how polite
I @TedShifrin am I correct
a = lambda and b = 1
NO. You are not using a brain.
How do I get that directly from just what I wrote?
18:52
slides his brain over to @mathsstudent
If $v_3=(T-\lambda I)v_2$, what is $Tv_2$ in terms of $v_1,v_2,v_3$?
If $v_4=(T-\lambda I)v_3$, what is $Tv_3$ in terms of $v_1,v_2,v_3,v_4$?
@Ted I am TA'ing linear algebra now, I will be teaching Row reduction and elementary matrices on Sunday.
That's one topic you have to prepare carefully ahead. When I taught linear algebra dozens of times, the one thing I always did was make up matrices that would work out nicely (of course, one works backwards). Most other things I didn't need to prepare.
Yeah, I am doing that now
Are you talking about how to get the general solution of $Ax=b$ from the RREF?
18:57
Yeah, the lecturer has defined RREF independently and has then used it to get general solutions
Is the red line meas Hom(E,Hom(E,E))?
Oh, so the lecturer's done that. I was going to suggest you do an example where the free variables are not all the last variables.
By the way that is a part of lang algebra text
@TedShifrin I am not getting it yet please explain 2 by 2 case
atleast where I have gone wrong
But these are first year college students so I do not know if that was a good thing to do and a lot of them are from non math backgrounds, so it might be difficult for them to appreciate RREF. That seems to be the general problem, they are like why am I doing all this
18:59
No, @mathsstudent. Forget what you've done. I've written three lines of formulas. Just use those three lines.
@Sayan: Well, having seen the algorithm to write the general solution, they have an answer for that.
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