« first day (3830 days earlier)      last day (1489 days later) » 

12:05
hello
i have a question about topology product
i'm searching an example of product of open sets do not make a topology
So my notes say that if $\mathcal{h}$ is a lie subalgebra of a lie algebra $\mathcal{g}$ corresponding to a lie group $G$, then $\operatorname{exp}\mathcal{h}$ is a submanifold in a neighborhood of $1$. Is $\operatorname{exp}\mathcal{h}$ the integral manifold generated by the left invariant vector fields for a basis of $\mathcal{h}$ ?
@MikeMiller topologist proof
geometrically obvious
for what it's worth, here's a more complete argument math.stackexchange.com/questions/1499978/…
12:23
@Vrouvrou is the union of two products of open sets a product of open sets?
@politeproofs look here
12:39
@Thorgott i try $\tau_1=\{\emptyset, E_1,\{a\}\}$ where $E_1=\{a,b\}$ and $\tau_2=\{\emptyset, E_2,\{c\}\}$ with $E_2=\{b,c\}$
$\{a\}\times E_2\cup E_1\times \{c\}=E_1\times E_2$
so it can be true
that equality is not correct
there's an element in the RHS which is not in the LHS
@SayanChattopadhyay Yes, correct
13:00
hey Balarka
do you know an easy example of a super-exponentially distorted subgroup
dunno what distortion means
@Thorgott I I understand $(b,b)$ is in $E_1\times E_2$ but it is not in $\{a\}\times E_2\cup E_1\times \{c\}$
@Thorgott there's a nice blog post about crazy distortion, let me see if I can first remember the author and then find it
whats the definition of distortion
Say, $H\subset G$ groups, both finitely generated. Pick generating sets $T,S$ respectively. Distortion of $H$ in $G$ is the function $n\mapsto\max\{\vert h\vert_T\colon h\in H,\vert h\vert_S\le n\}$, where the norms are the word norms. So distortion measures how far the inclusion is from being a (quasi-)isometry. Growth rate of this is independent of choice of generating sets, of course.
13:06
not divided by $n$?
doesnt matter anyway
but, I mean, that doesn't change the amount of information you get
@robjohn I see, so I could have done that.
I wanted to do that...
But wasn't sure if I could do it.
this is denoted $\Delta^H_G$ and the inclusion being a quasi-isometric embedding is equivalent to $\Delta^H_G$ having affine linear growth rate
13:09
yeah thats why i wanted to divide by $n$
got it
examples: center of Heisenberg group is quadratically distorted
yeah makes sense
If someone is interested in reinforcement learning, here you have a potentially useful post.
3
Q: What are the biggest barriers to get RL in production?

Alexandre KrulI am studying the state of the art of Reinforcement Learning, and my point is that we see so many applications in the real world using Supervised and Unsupervised learning algorithms in production, but I don't see the same thing with Reinforcement Learning algorithms. What are the biggest barrier...

further example: subgroups of nilpotent groups are polynomially distorted (this was established by you can guess who)
yeah clear from Gromov's theorem
13:12
it's used in proving the theorem, apparently
other example: $\mathbb{Z}^n$ is exponentially distorted in $\mathbb{Z}^n\rtimes_M\mathbb{Z}$ if $M$ has an eigenvalue with absolute value different from $1$
how distorted are subgroups of (Free) x (Free)?
berstein.wordpress.com/2011/03/02/the-rips-construction-ii here you go, distortion not bounded above by any computable function, is this distorted enough for your taste? @Thorgott
how distorted can copies of Z be?
I think Paul Plummer showed this post to me a couple of years ago, but he hasn't been in chat for too long and I can't ping him, he surely knows more about this topic
13:20
@BalarkaSen idk, but apparently this has been investigated
random shit man its impossible to learn ggt
"Further, Olshanskii and Sapir show that the set of classes of distortion functions of finitely generated subgroups of a product of two free groups coincides with the set of classes of all Dehn functions of finitely presented groups."
from the blog Alessandro sent
@user2103480 Dude I cited Hahn Banach you can't call that a topologist proof
@AlessandroCodenotti his profile does not exist
A topologist proof points out that if it's not a dense embedding then the image has closure a proper subset and you can write down a functional by first collapsing that
13:26
@Thorgott thats cool
@BalarkaSen You just need to be Gromov
and he hasn't chatted for 4 months
F_2 x F_2 has "flats" where curvature is 0, so I was wondering if you can move in and out of those to gain distortion
because if you move out of the flats to negative curvature by Morse lemma you're walking exponentially more
so it seems you can definitely gain exponential distortion
exponentially distorted cyclic subgroups in fact
but i dont know beyond this
i could be wrong tho
definitely seems like exponentially distorted Zs should be a thing
yeah but if anyone can tell me concretely thatd be you
13:42
I learned the concept of distortion like 3 days ago, I can't tell you anything
13:54
can't I just do like $\langle 1,s,t\vert t^nst^{-n}=2^n\rangle$?
hmm, is that non-trivial
14:15
@MikeMiller that would have been very much enlightening since it's basically the statement cited there
That F is dense in E iff functionals on E are zero if they are zero on F
as a topologists proof should be
15:00
is $D^2 / \sim$ where $f : \partial D^2 \rightarrow \partial D^2$ is $f(z) = z^2$ (viewing $D^2 \subset \mathbb{C}$), and $\sim$ is the equivalence relation generated by $a \sim f(a)$ homeomorphic to some well known object?
if $\sim$ just identified antipodal points then I could say $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^2$, but given the third point in the equivalence class, it doesn't seem like this is $ \mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^2$
15:24
just to make sure I am not going completely crazy:

$f(x) = e^{-1/x^2}$, $f^{(n)}(0) \neq 0,$ $\forall n \in \Bbb N$ right?
yes
very important fact
oh ok I looked up the errata of this book and it fixes this
thanks
no wait, I misread
they're all equal to $0$, not unequal
15:28
its part of the usual bump function
yeah, precisely
17
Q: How do you show that $e^{-1/x^2}$ is differentiable at $0$?

user93184Define the real valued function $f(x)$ by $f(x) = e^{-1/x^2}$ if $x \ne 0$ and $0$ if $x = 0$. How do you show that $e^{-1/x^2}$ is differentiable at $0$? How do you show that this function is infinitely differentiable?

@copper.hat answering 7 years ago
every day I remember calculus is absolutely nuts
haha nice
scary, i forgot
sorry to spook you. I too am afraid of this phenomenon occurring to me. For this reason I absolutely never write intelligent, correct answers on the internet for future me to get taken aback by
15:33
:-)
For $k$ a field (algebraically closed if you wish) can we put a bound on the (minimal) number of generators for any ideal of $k[x_1,\dots,x_n]$?
Actually, I'd already be happy to see an example of an ideal generated by at least $n+1$ elements
oh, I found the answer
shouldn't the minimal number of generators for an ideal there be $1$? just pick any $x_i$ and $(x_i)$ is an ideal?
For an arbitrary ideal
(x1,x2) isn't generated by 1 element
15:41
doesn't exist by Krull's principal ideal theorem
oh an arbitrary ideal
@Thorgott ?
uh, not the principal version, of course
the generalization, whatever it's called
I try to understand every time Sha comes in with these questions and leave clueless lol
That's on me tho
@Mike I'm saying there is no ideal that cannot be generated with $n$ elements
15:42
Hmmmmmm
maybe a consequence of Nullstellansatz?
spitballin
@MikeMiller Wait what xD I'm confused
@Thorgott is that a solution to my question, or what?
I thought there were varieties in A^2 or A^3 which required more generators than you would expect
I found an ez induction argument actually
@ShaVuklia I just mean I am very very bad at commutative algebra / algebraic geometry
15:45
oh yeah, I guess it's just a dévissage argument
gesundheit
no wait, I was thinking modules
I don't see the induction argument
how does it go?
Ok I said it was easy, but this argument actually involves the generalised Nullstellensatz (which I wouldn't have thought of myself). I'm still going through some details, but this is the post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/422182/…
@ShaVuklia yooo I guessed right
ah, that's a nice argument, but it's only for maximal ideals
(on the upside, it also gives the exact number of generators for those)
I don't think you can avoid something like Krull's theorem for arbitrary ideals
15:52
anyone know what my space is? :D
ugly
don't know the actual answer, sorry
but definitely not $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^2$ right?
is there an easy way to say it isnt?
@porridgemathematics I don't think your space is Hausdorff
Let $\alpha = e^{2\pi i \beta}$ where $\beta$ is irrational
Then the orbit of $\alpha$ under your squaring map (forwards and backwards) is a dense countable subset of the boundary circle
And you're collapsing that all to a point
Any neighborhood containing that will intersect any neighborhood of 1
16:01
oh wow
yeah nvm, my Krull argument doesn't work directly
I had the wrong statement in my head
@MikeMiller thanks!
this is annoying
ah, that's nice
I suspected the space isn't Hausdorff, but cba to think of an argument
Whenever your equivalence classes are non-closed you should be very skeptical that things will work out
In fact I think if the quotient is Hausdorff then the equivalence classes are closed
I guess that makes sense, because $\{ [x] \}$ must be closed, so its preimage must be closed?
thats a good condition to check, yeah
16:09
yeah, so equivalence classes closed is equivalent to the quotient being T1
right
and the (forward + backward) orbit is not closed, because its dense, so there are rational points on the circle that are limit points of the dense orbit but certainly not in the dense orbit?
is that the idea
16:22
Right
It is not closed because it is dense but countable
There's some condition about the quotient being Hausdorff when the relation is closed a subset of X x X but there are additional requirements and I always forget it
And that criterion is basically never useful imo
@MikeMiller open quotient map? (not sure if that's the additional requirement you had in mind, but it's one that works)
I think this is a very useful criterion
quotient maps by group actions are always open, so these abound in nature
this is what I'd use in testing when, say, the quotient of a manifold by a Lie group action is Hausdorff
Nerd
Just do it by hand
Nah I agree this is probably a straightforward route to getting that fact for proper actions on l.c. spaces
For simple cases though I just work by hand
yeah, fair
like doing a hyperplane argument for projective spaces
but dunno, this is probably already more convenient when you're doing Lens spaces
16:37
What transformation is the composition of a glide reflection and a rotation?
16:52
Ok so I think bump functions are supposed to be zero divisors in the ring of smooth functions, but what do you multiply them by to get the zero function?
@MaryStar Well, because a glide reflection is orientation-reversing and a rotation is orientation-preserving, you know that, whatever your composite is, it must be orientation-reversing. Therefore it's either a reflection or a glide reflection. Then think about whether it can have any fixed points---that will answer it.
(Depending on where your center of rotation is, I think both are possible.)
@BigSocks what does it mean for the product of two functions to be the zero function
@Fargle Yup. Howdy :)
Question I had before bed:. How does a computer compute a number raised to a power of a rational number, let's say 3^2.1 ??
Howdy, @BigSocks and @Thor.
17:07
Hi @TedShifrin
How did they do this before computers too?
hey Ted
@Thorgott $ f(x)*g(x) = h(x)$ and $h(x) = 0 \forall x \in \Bbb R$
If you haven't heard of it before, @DiscoLemonade, calculators use the CORDIC algorithm.
Fascinating stuff. Read about it.
When I was in high school, we used logarithm tables (and slide rules) to do computations. Believe it or not.
I don't know what computers do, but one way this could be done by hand is by using something like the Binomial series
17:09
but here we have to have $f(x) \neq 0$ and $g(x) \neq 0$. I guess they can be zero for some $x$? Maybe if one was zero for all the $x$ such that the other was not...
So you would do your problem by taking the log and using the log table to find log and multiply and then "unlog."
@BigSocks you're on the right track
@Thor: I always thought calculators/computers used Taylor series to do trig, exponentials, etc. They don't.
yeah, I remember we had this conversation for trig functions before
Damn, you're getting old :)
17:11
lol
So the bump function is zero outside of what I am guessing is an interval of radius $1$, but I can't remember. We just make it so the other function is zero there and not zero everywhere else. like a $bump^{op}$ type of guy
Would that we had bump functions in the analytic/algebraic category. It would make life so simple. :D
Just spent 5m reading. A) I really suck at math above a 1st year uni level, B) I wish I was working in the 70s where you'd have to be intelligent to get stuff done like this. I wish there were more constraints in engineering.
I remember the 70s :)
I was born in 85, but I repair some equipment that was build in early 90s. They have schematics you are supposed to interpret yourself, and they give a theory of operation, and then they say "go". Now each section of the manual is hand-holding, and you can't work on a third of the things you used to be able to.
17:22
Think about car engines. It's all computerized now. My first car (71 Saab) I could take apart the automatic choke, clean it out, put it back together. I could adjust the carburetor. Now it's all a big black box.
Yep.
Wait, a guy/gal that knows math AND can fix a car?
A colleague of mine has a B-I-L who is a math prof, but needed help to fix his bicycle... Simple turning of screws/wrenches.
Well, never could seriously fix, no. But I dabbled. Even the morning before one of my qualifying exams, I remember.
5
Q: Size of a linear image of a cube in $\mathbb{Z}^d$

Michal FerovSuppose that we have an element $v = (v_1, \dots, v_d) \in \mathbb{Z}^d$ such that $\gcd(v_1, \dots, v_d) = 1$. Then $v$ is contained in some base of $\mathbb{Z}^d$ (seen as a free-abelian group or a free module over $\mathbb{Z}$). In particular, there exists a regular integer matrix $A \in \math...

this is interesting
Qualifier exams... "Come spend a year of your life at our institution and THEN we'll tell you if you're good enough"
Ok what if you had like a little "bump donut" around $(-2,-1) \cup (1,2)$ that was also somehow smooth. that times the bump function would surely be $0$ everywhere right?
17:32
@Fargle We have the gliede reflection $\kappa \begin{pmatrix}x\\ y\end{pmatrix}= \begin{pmatrix}x\\ -y+2\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix}2 \\ 0\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}x+2\\ -y+2\end{pmatrix}$ and the rotation $\delta \begin{pmatrix} x\\ y\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}-1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} x -1\\ y-1\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix} 1\\ 1\end{pmatrix}$. Both have as fixed line the $y=1$.
To check what we have do we take an arbitrary point and see what the image of the composition is?
@BigSocks yes
@TedShifrin he wouldn't remember if he were getting old
more generally, you want disjoint supports
right yeah. that I think is the key. But for some reason I think you also need it to be compact, so it couldn't just be something like "1-(the bump function)" on the entire $\Bbb R$
nothing to do with compactness
the issue with 1-bump is that there are points at which 1-bump and bump both are non-zero
17:42
yeah that's true. basically everything at the slanty bits I guess
speaking very formally of course
17:58
ok so taking a subring of the field of rational functions $k(x,y)$ that is generated by $k, x, $ and $y/x^i$ for $i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$, how do I see that the ideal of the 2 latter guys is actually just the ideal generated by $x$?
Like I can't divide by $x$ so how do I build any of the $y/x^i$?
furthermore how do I even get $y$. Seems like a hoax to me
What do you mean "the ideal of the 2 latter guys"
in $k[x, y/x^i]$?
$(x, y/x^i)$
Essentially this, I think: mathoverflow.net/questions/82052/… Swap x and y
That's all of $k[x, y/x^i]$
@Astyx ok yes
but somehow there is a claim saying that ideal is the same as just $(x)$
maybe I am misunderstanding
18:05
Yeah
I'll write out exactly what it says
@Astyx How?
I'm tempted to say by definition
You're saying the ideal = k[x,y/x^i]?
yes
18:07
No way
Well it depends in which ambient space you're taking the ideal
Which is what I was asking in the first place
It's an ideal of a ring.
The only other thing is a field, when you get the whole field.
If it's in $k(x,y)$ that's the whole space, yes
Which was my first question
Let $R$ denote the subring of the field $k(x,y)$ of rational functions in two variables generated by $k,x,$ and$y/x^i$, for $i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$. Let $M_0$ denote the ideal $(x, y/x^i, i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0})$. Clearly, $M_0 = (x)$, and it is easy to check that $M_0$ is maximal. Moreover, $\cap^\infty_{i=1} M^i_0 \supset (y/x^i , i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$). Let $A := R_{M_0}$, and denote by $M = (x)$ its maximal ideal.
If it's in $k[x, y/x^i]$, again it's the whole ring
18:09
c'mon
hold on @Thorgott and @TedShifrin, I was under the impression Taylor Series are what's used to approximate the trig functions on calculators.....
@BigSocks You're missing an (
Thank you
He puts the $i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$ in the parenthesis, so I left it there, but it doesn't seem to actually mean that the natural numbers are generators of this ideal and are also somehow generated by $x$
that would be an even bigger sell idk
Is this in Hartshorne?
18:12
Implicitly in Hartshorne (see the link I gave above).
pages 69-70
@KarlKroningfeld and yeah this is true
I looked at that but am waiting for the muse to speak
Part of what you want to show is that $y\in (x)$, right?
So you need $xf=y$ with $f$ an element of the ring.
Aha. And $f = y/x$ because it’s in the ring
Mmmmm
18:17
Here's something cool that Hartshorne mentions in his chapter on cohomology that is actually more elementary. First, background: if $A$ is a Noetherian ring, then for any injective $A$-module $I$ and any $x\in A$, the homomorphism $I\to I_x$ is surjective. Here is an example showing that you need the hypothesis $A$ is Noetherian: let $A=k[x_0,x_1,\dots,x_n,\dots]/(x_0x_1,x_0x_2^2,\dots,x_0x_n^n,\dots)$. If $I$ is any injective $A$-module that contains $A$, then $I\to I_{x_0}$ is not surjective.
I was talking about Bigsocks' way, but I got why it was interesting
Wait what about my way
@KarlKroningfeld gunna have to stare at this more. Not immediately clear to me why or how it’s related
But thanks nonetheless
Ok, is there a way for my mobile browser to resolve Tex $ formatting? It is getting tough.
@BigSocks Unrelated
Ooo ok got worried for a second
18:23
@BigSocks yeah, you can show that any generator of the ideal in question belongs to (x) in a similar way
@dc3rd no that's mostly way too slow
@KarlKroningfeld Why is it not surjective?
@Astyx Because it got in a bad mood.
It's kinda counterintuitive.
But, one can show that $1/x_0$ does not belong to $I$.
(If I'm thinking about it right...)
@user2103480 then what procedure is used?
@DiscoLemonade Did you look at the link given in the room description for LaTeX in chat?
18:34
Dinnertime for me
Seeya
Hmm I'm going to have to think about this more
Seeya
Seeya, my suggestion works though I was being imprecise (I meant 1/x_0 is not in the image of $I$)
@dc3rd often the CORDIC algorithm is used for the transcendental functions on a calculator (or they were years ago)
i'm having periodic internet outages while doing remote teaching work and it's driving me up a wall
I was just perusing the Wiki entry on the CORDIC algorithm, seems interesting
@KarlKroningfeld sure ok, that makes sense. Another question about this same thing is why do you get that infinite intersection to be nontrivial? There seems to be no $x^n$ for any $n \in \Bbb N$. what would you multiply to get any of the $y/x^i$, say $y/x$
18:39
@dc3rd I used it for computing trig functions and inverse trig functions for QuickDraw GX (MacOS). Some of the code survives in the current Mac OS and some was ported to early Android code (I don't know if it is still used there, they may use an FPU now).
(and who knows; the FPU might use the CORDIC algorithm internally)
@BigSocks Two things: 1. What do you mean when you say infinite intersection? 2. What do you get when you multiply $x$ with itself in $k[x,y/x^i]$?
@robjohn what is an FPU? and what kind of algorithm is in use now for calculators ?
@dc3rd If they don't use an FPU, it is most likely still the CORDIC algorithm
Ah...I do know gloating point numbers.
I mean floating....
what would a gloating point number look like I wonder......
@KarlKroningfeld For 1. I guess if you take a finite one, say $(x) \cap (x^2)$ you just get $(x^2)$, and that has all the $y/x^i$ because you can get $y/x$ by multiplying by $y/x^{2}$ to get $y$ and by large powers of $x$ in the denominator to get $y/x$. This I guess works for any finite case, but yeah I don't know what you get for the infinite one...
18:47
Oh guys btw
it's not true that every ideal of k[x1,...,xn] is generated by =<n elements
@KarlKroningfeld and for 2. I suppose it's $x^2$
so @Mike was right that there are indeed alg var that need more generators
A local noetherian domain I guess has maximal ideal that cannot be written down with $n$ or fewer generators @ShaVuklia
what's n here then?
the dimension?
18:50
tfw my TA just criticized me for calling the monomial basis the easiest basis for a space of polynomials, cause that's a subjective claim
@BigSocks It's still unclear what you're intersecting. What are you trying to do with that intersection?
@BigSocks Righ', iterating you show that all $x^n$ belong to the ring.
the powers of the maximal ideal $M$, $M^i$ for $i$ natural. And what the author wants to do is show that the intersection is not trivial whenever you're working in a local domain with principal maximal ideal in order to show that it is not sufficient that all maximal ideals be principal to show that all ideals in general are principal
@KarlKroningfeld
show him this question- the accepted answer agrees with you
@BigSocks Ah, nice.
MSE is the only true academic source
yep it's full of only facts which, by definition, could not possibly care about your TA's feelings
@KarlKroningfeld yeah but that works at each finite stage. idk why it would hold in the limit though
don't say induction, please, my heart won't be able to take it
18:57
@BigSocks You have a family of sets $S_i$ and $z\in S_i$ for all $i$. Perhaps, write out what $\bigcap_i S_i$ is in set notation.
logicians owned
oh wait, but I can't get $x$ in $(x^2)$ can I
That's not a problem.
@Thorgott sobbing
@dc3rd the number of votes the last president received?
18:58
@KarlKroningfeld bc at each step of the way I keep all the $y/x^i$ basically huh...
yeah that's gotta be it
@Semiclassical 🤣
Or, it is what the intersection is... :P
man that one was kinda clear. Thanks for the patience @KarlKroningfeld
@Semiclassical "Big number of votes, so many votes it is impossible to count them all....we're talking huge"........something he would say or along those lines....
@KarlKroningfeld lol, I'm not owned, I'm not owned
19:00
It shows that you don't have to represent an element of the intersection in the same way in each set.
i guess the real 'gloating point number' is what he got in 2016
@KarlKroningfeld right bc they come from the products of different $x^n$ at each step I guess
That might help explain why taking the intersection of a chain of sets and then taking its image using a function does not give the intersection of the images in general.
@dc3rd I had been too, until we had a fascinating lecture in our Math Club at UGA fifteen years ago or so. Read up on the CORDIC algorithm.
There are a lot of lies like that
I dislike lying of that form
19:08
Yes @TedShifrin, @robjohn was enlightening me on FPU
Hmm, what's FPU?
Oh. floating point. duh.
It is all a lie... This is a hologram... @MikeMiller
It's amazing how I got through most of my math career not having been properly informed on this point. Very annoying. But I've proselytized ever since.
(Damn, that word is hard to spell.)
19:12
@TedShifrin and easy to mistake for another...
You're too witty for me this morning, @robjohn.
I read it as "prosthetized" on first glance and imagined a cyberpunk Ted
@TedShifrin yeah, I'd really hate to be accused of prosecuting when only proselytizing... ;-p
Advent of calculators may be called prosthetization of mathematics
Next, Balarka will be starting a prosthetization ring.
19:16
@TedShifrin Most likely without identity
my brain automatically starts playing either Blue Monday or Sweet Dreams whenever I hear the word cyberpunk
I would assume it's non-associative, in fact.
The idea is to replace the original with a prosthetic, so yeah, non-associative.
19:29
@TedShifrin: amWhy got me thinking about holiday decorations for the room...
LOL, talk about "easy to mistake"
It's a very unfortunate acronym
Even an acrid acronym.
19:45
vd does not seem to be the usual term in the usa. was it at some stage?
Sure it is. For both things.
@Thorgott postmodern reacts only
@Thorgott wtf he's a logician
20:02
when i grew up std was a term for direct dialing...
and it's still an abbreviation for "standard."
one better be careful with the phrase "standard diagnosis", then
or "standard injection"
"It's the community standard!"
canonical, @Astyx, not "standard." :)
20:13
natural injection
functorial, even
20:31
Is there some kind of construction that is equivalent to prime multiplication in that it is easy to compute n = p*q and also easy to check whether p | n, but where the equivalent of finding the greatest common denominator is hard? (i.e. there is no efficient algorithm for gcd(n_1, n_2))? Or is the existence of such a function a consequence of divisibility checking (or its equivalent) having an efficient algorithm?
20:56
Quick Linear algebra question: If I have a function: $T: V \to W$ and I have the basis for a domain. This doesn't necessarily mean that my map $T$ is linear?

« first day (3830 days earlier)      last day (1489 days later) »