So my notes say that if $\mathcal{h}$ is a lie subalgebra of a lie algebra $\mathcal{g}$ corresponding to a lie group $G$, then $\operatorname{exp}\mathcal{h}$ is a submanifold in a neighborhood of $1$. Is $\operatorname{exp}\mathcal{h}$ the integral manifold generated by the left invariant vector fields for a basis of $\mathcal{h}$ ?
Say, $H\subset G$ groups, both finitely generated. Pick generating sets $T,S$ respectively. Distortion of $H$ in $G$ is the function $n\mapsto\max\{\vert h\vert_T\colon h\in H,\vert h\vert_S\le n\}$, where the norms are the word norms. So distortion measures how far the inclusion is from being a (quasi-)isometry. Growth rate of this is independent of choice of generating sets, of course.
I am studying the state of the art of Reinforcement Learning, and my point is that we see so many applications in the real world using Supervised and Unsupervised learning algorithms in production, but I don't see the same thing with Reinforcement Learning algorithms.
What are the biggest barrier...
other example: $\mathbb{Z}^n$ is exponentially distorted in $\mathbb{Z}^n\rtimes_M\mathbb{Z}$ if $M$ has an eigenvalue with absolute value different from $1$
I think Paul Plummer showed this post to me a couple of years ago, but he hasn't been in chat for too long and I can't ping him, he surely knows more about this topic
"Further, Olshanskii and Sapir show that the set of classes of distortion functions of finitely generated subgroups of a product of two free groups coincides with the set of classes of all Dehn functions of finitely presented groups."
A topologist proof points out that if it's not a dense embedding then the image has closure a proper subset and you can write down a functional by first collapsing that
is $D^2 / \sim$ where $f : \partial D^2 \rightarrow \partial D^2$ is $f(z) = z^2$ (viewing $D^2 \subset \mathbb{C}$), and $\sim$ is the equivalence relation generated by $a \sim f(a)$ homeomorphic to some well known object?
if $\sim$ just identified antipodal points then I could say $\mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^2$, but given the third point in the equivalence class, it doesn't seem like this is $ \mathbb{R} \mathbb{P}^2$
Define the real valued function $f(x)$ by $f(x) = e^{-1/x^2}$ if $x \ne 0$ and $0$ if $x = 0$.
How do you show that $e^{-1/x^2}$ is differentiable at $0$?
How do you show that this function is infinitely differentiable?
sorry to spook you. I too am afraid of this phenomenon occurring to me. For this reason I absolutely never write intelligent, correct answers on the internet for future me to get taken aback by
Ok I said it was easy, but this argument actually involves the generalised Nullstellensatz (which I wouldn't have thought of myself). I'm still going through some details, but this is the post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/422182/…
and the (forward + backward) orbit is not closed, because its dense, so there are rational points on the circle that are limit points of the dense orbit but certainly not in the dense orbit?
It is not closed because it is dense but countable
There's some condition about the quotient being Hausdorff when the relation is closed a subset of X x X but there are additional requirements and I always forget it
Ok so I think bump functions are supposed to be zero divisors in the ring of smooth functions, but what do you multiply them by to get the zero function?
@MaryStar Well, because a glide reflection is orientation-reversing and a rotation is orientation-preserving, you know that, whatever your composite is, it must be orientation-reversing. Therefore it's either a reflection or a glide reflection. Then think about whether it can have any fixed points---that will answer it.
(Depending on where your center of rotation is, I think both are possible.)
but here we have to have $f(x) \neq 0$ and $g(x) \neq 0$. I guess they can be zero for some $x$? Maybe if one was zero for all the $x$ such that the other was not...
So the bump function is zero outside of what I am guessing is an interval of radius $1$, but I can't remember. We just make it so the other function is zero there and not zero everywhere else. like a $bump^{op}$ type of guy
Just spent 5m reading. A) I really suck at math above a 1st year uni level, B) I wish I was working in the 70s where you'd have to be intelligent to get stuff done like this. I wish there were more constraints in engineering.
I was born in 85, but I repair some equipment that was build in early 90s. They have schematics you are supposed to interpret yourself, and they give a theory of operation, and then they say "go". Now each section of the manual is hand-holding, and you can't work on a third of the things you used to be able to.
Think about car engines. It's all computerized now. My first car (71 Saab) I could take apart the automatic choke, clean it out, put it back together. I could adjust the carburetor. Now it's all a big black box.
Suppose that we have an element $v = (v_1, \dots, v_d) \in \mathbb{Z}^d$ such that $\gcd(v_1, \dots, v_d) = 1$. Then $v$ is contained in some base of $\mathbb{Z}^d$ (seen as a free-abelian group or a free module over $\mathbb{Z}$). In particular, there exists a regular integer matrix $A \in \math...
Ok what if you had like a little "bump donut" around $(-2,-1) \cup (1,2)$ that was also somehow smooth. that times the bump function would surely be $0$ everywhere right?
@Fargle We have the gliede reflection $\kappa \begin{pmatrix}x\\ y\end{pmatrix}= \begin{pmatrix}x\\ -y+2\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix}2 \\ 0\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}x+2\\ -y+2\end{pmatrix}$ and the rotation $\delta \begin{pmatrix} x\\ y\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}-1 & 0 \\ 0 & -1\end{pmatrix}\begin{pmatrix} x -1\\ y-1\end{pmatrix}+\begin{pmatrix} 1\\ 1\end{pmatrix}$. Both have as fixed line the $y=1$.
To check what we have do we take an arbitrary point and see what the image of the composition is?
right yeah. that I think is the key. But for some reason I think you also need it to be compact, so it couldn't just be something like "1-(the bump function)" on the entire $\Bbb R$
ok so taking a subring of the field of rational functions $k(x,y)$ that is generated by $k, x, $ and $y/x^i$ for $i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$, how do I see that the ideal of the 2 latter guys is actually just the ideal generated by $x$?
Like I can't divide by $x$ so how do I build any of the $y/x^i$?
furthermore how do I even get $y$. Seems like a hoax to me
Let $R$ denote the subring of the field $k(x,y)$ of rational functions in two variables generated by $k,x,$ and$y/x^i$, for $i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$. Let $M_0$ denote the ideal $(x, y/x^i, i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0})$. Clearly, $M_0 = (x)$, and it is easy to check that $M_0$ is maximal. Moreover, $\cap^\infty_{i=1} M^i_0 \supset (y/x^i , i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$). Let $A := R_{M_0}$, and denote by $M = (x)$ its maximal ideal.
He puts the $i \in \Bbb Z_{\geq 0}$ in the parenthesis, so I left it there, but it doesn't seem to actually mean that the natural numbers are generators of this ideal and are also somehow generated by $x$
Here's something cool that Hartshorne mentions in his chapter on cohomology that is actually more elementary. First, background: if $A$ is a Noetherian ring, then for any injective $A$-module $I$ and any $x\in A$, the homomorphism $I\to I_x$ is surjective. Here is an example showing that you need the hypothesis $A$ is Noetherian: let $A=k[x_0,x_1,\dots,x_n,\dots]/(x_0x_1,x_0x_2^2,\dots,x_0x_n^n,\dots)$. If $I$ is any injective $A$-module that contains $A$, then $I\to I_{x_0}$ is not surjective.
@KarlKroningfeld sure ok, that makes sense. Another question about this same thing is why do you get that infinite intersection to be nontrivial? There seems to be no $x^n$ for any $n \in \Bbb N$. what would you multiply to get any of the $y/x^i$, say $y/x$
@dc3rd I used it for computing trig functions and inverse trig functions for QuickDraw GX (MacOS). Some of the code survives in the current Mac OS and some was ported to early Android code (I don't know if it is still used there, they may use an FPU now).
(and who knows; the FPU might use the CORDIC algorithm internally)
@KarlKroningfeld For 1. I guess if you take a finite one, say $(x) \cap (x^2)$ you just get $(x^2)$, and that has all the $y/x^i$ because you can get $y/x$ by multiplying by $y/x^{2}$ to get $y$ and by large powers of $x$ in the denominator to get $y/x$. This I guess works for any finite case, but yeah I don't know what you get for the infinite one...
the powers of the maximal ideal $M$, $M^i$ for $i$ natural. And what the author wants to do is show that the intersection is not trivial whenever you're working in a local domain with principal maximal ideal in order to show that it is not sufficient that all maximal ideals be principal to show that all ideals in general are principal
@Semiclassical "Big number of votes, so many votes it is impossible to count them all....we're talking huge"........something he would say or along those lines....
That might help explain why taking the intersection of a chain of sets and then taking its image using a function does not give the intersection of the images in general.
It's amazing how I got through most of my math career not having been properly informed on this point. Very annoying. But I've proselytized ever since.
Is there some kind of construction that is equivalent to prime multiplication in that it is easy to compute n = p*q and also easy to check whether p | n, but where the equivalent of finding the greatest common denominator is hard? (i.e. there is no efficient algorithm for gcd(n_1, n_2))? Or is the existence of such a function a consequence of divisibility checking (or its equivalent) having an efficient algorithm?
Quick Linear algebra question: If I have a function: $T: V \to W$ and I have the basis for a domain. This doesn't necessarily mean that my map $T$ is linear?