*17.
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Assume on the contrary that $f(x)^2 \ge r^2$ and $f(x)^2 \le p^2$. Then $f(x)^2 \ge r^2 \Rightarrow (f(x) - r)(f(x) + r) \ge 0.$ Since $f$ is not the zero function and $r$ is positive, we have that $f(x) \in (-\infty, -r]\cup [r,\infty).$ Similarly, we have that $f(x)^2 \le p^2 \Rightarrow (f(x) - p)(f(x) + p) \le 0.$ This implies that $f(x) \in [-p,p].$ At the beginning, we assume that $0 < p < x < r \Rightarrow 0 < p^2 < x^2 < r^2.$ This tells us that $-p > -r,$ and so $f(x) \in [-p,-r],$ which implies that for any real positive $x$, the output will be negative.