« first day (3825 days earlier)      last day (1189 days later) » 

7:00 PM
am I wrong if I write $ 1\in \mathbb{N}^{*} $ ?
 
It's pretty cool to earn Ted's approval
 
@BigSocks: What happens if you try this with $3+4i$ instead?
What does $\Bbb N^*$ mean, @kenkar?
@Sayan: Well, Thor annoys me, though, by not responding to comments I make that he does not understand. So I have to repeat them and then deduce that he doesn't understand.
 
$ \mathbb{N}^{*} = \bigcup_{i \in \mathbb{N}} \mathbb{N}^i$
 
I'm not blaming him for not understanding ... just wishing he'd say so immediately.
By $\Bbb N^i$ you mean the $i$-fold cartesian product?
 
Yes
 
7:03 PM
OK, so isn't $1$ in $\Bbb N^1$?
 
I'll try to better myself
 
Thank you, @Thor :)
 
Yes it is, but .. huh
 
I stand by my thin compliment (is that like a thin complement?).
 
I'll immediately be annoying again by pointing out that technically $1$ isn't in $\mathbb{N}^1$
but only a set theorist would care
 
7:05 PM
BTW, kenkar, that notation is totally non-standard.
It's not a one-tuple?
 
so $(1)$ would be correct ?
 
Oh good grief.
 
Ok, I guess it depends on how you want to define tuples
 
I'm not going to write $(a)$ whenever I have a real number $a$.
 
I take $\mathbb{N}^1$ to be the set of functions $1\rightarrow\mathbb{N}$
 
7:06 PM
This is the sort of thing that makes me hate mathematics.
 
but as I said, it ultimately is hardly a matter of concern
also re:$\mathbb{Z}[i]$, there's a more general point to be made here about how these ideals work and what $2+i$ has to do with $5$, but I'll leave that for after Ted's $3+4i$ example
 
I suspect your general point is related to my point?
 
So, technically $\mathbb{N} \ne \mathbb{N}^1$ ?
idk how to latex not equal
 
\ne
 
thanks
 
7:11 PM
This sort of subtlety just does not interest me. For any set $X$, of course $X$ is in bijection with $X^1$.
 
@TedShifrin you get $(3 + 4i) (3-4i) = 25$ so $25 \in (3 + 4i)$. Following Thorgott's proof, you do $f^{-1}$ which is the intersection $(3 + 4i) \cap \Bbb Z$ that should contain $(25)$. But in the last step $(25)$ is not a maximal ideal since $(25) \subset (5)$ so the rest of the argument can't follow
 
But if you're being a set theorist about it, then ... shrug
@BigSocks, so can you conjecture a difference between $3+4i$ and $2+i$ as elements of $\Bbb Z[i]$?
 
@TedShifrin the category theorist now chimes in to defeat the set theorist by remarking that this bijection in fact gives a natural isomorphism
 
ROFL
Nothing relating to intuition in this discussion, btw.
notes that BigSocks is still hanging menacingly close to San Diego
 
hahaha I'm just floating up here... thinking about the difference between these guys
 
7:17 PM
ICK
 
Question related to Thor's Riemannian question. If $\lim_{x\to 0^+} f(x)=\infty$ and $f$ is twice differentiable, must we have $\lim_{x\to 0^+} f''(x)/f(x)=\infty$?
 
@TedShifrin Let $f\colon U\subseteq\mathbb C\to\mathbb R$ be a continuous function (U open). Is the "MVP" which is sufficient for being a harmonic function "For all $z_0\in U$ we have that for all $r>0$ with $B = B(z_0,r)\subseteq U$, $\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_0^{2\pi} f(z_0 + re^{i\theta}) = f(z_0)$", or does it suffice to only demand that there exists an r with $B\subseteq U$ with this property (for each $z_0$)?
 
Oh, surely a single $r$ will never do it. But sufficiently small $r$ will do it.
 
I mean other than the obvious- one of their norms is a square in $\Bbb Z$ and the other is not... this doesn't speak much of a difference betwen them as elements of $\Bbb Z[i]$
 
It suggests a difference, @BigSocks.
 
7:22 PM
Okay, so it's small enough r. I see.
Thanks!
 
@anakhro If you think intuitively, harmonicity's failing at one point would tell you by continuity that the Laplacian was positive, say, on a small neighborhood.
 
oh, also $3 + 4i = (2 + i)^2$ (missed that one for a bit)
but I don't think that's much of a conjecture. just kind of an observation
 
When doing limit proofs with two functions that we might need to relate in the proof, is it good practice to switch the variables that approach a value for two separate functions? For example, if we wish to prove that $\lim_{x \to p} f(x) = L_1$ and $\lim_{x \to k} g(x) = L_2$, should we instead prove that $\lim_{y \to k} g(y) = L_2$ as to not confuse ourselves?
 
@TedShifrin That's true.
 
I guess $2 +i$ is closer to being "prime" in a way
 
7:27 PM
in what way?
 
well at least it "complex conjugate" squares to a prime number in $\Bbb N$
more than you can say about $3 + 4i$ but I guess with the one observation $3 + 4i$ never had a chance of being "prime"
 
What do you know about the modulus of complex numbers?
 
looked it up - that's the square root of the norm then huh
 
Right, so what if that number is prime?
 
the "length" of the segment between $0$ and the number in the plane spanned by $\{ 1,i \}$
 
7:31 PM
the square of that length
 
oh I must be looking at some nonstandard definition
ok square of that length is like the norm
 
@polite: I suggested switching letters the other day because you were composing functions. If you're working with two unrelated functions at different points, who cares?
 
which I just remembered goes at the end of the field polynomial when you write that down
 
@TedShifrin Is that something you do?
 
@BigSocks: Yes, @Astyx is asking you if you know about $|zw|$ for complex numbers $z,w$?
 
7:32 PM
so $5$ is the constant term for the field polynomial that has $2 +i$ as a root I guess
 
@polite: Nah. I suggested it because you were doing the composition and you did, in fact, confuse things.
If we're doing two unrelated limits, why are you putting them together in the first place?
 
Okay, sorry
 
I mean, I guess yeah it's kind of like the norm, but I'm not 100% on a list of properties of that
 
Really?
So the number theory norm is motivated by such things.
 
well I guess also 25 and 5 are the sum of 2 squares bc you end up with $1 + 4$ and $9 + 16$
idk if that helps, but you mentioned number theory and there are some numbers :)
 
7:36 PM
OK, so this will ultimately be related to characterizing which primes are sums of two squares. But that's off on a tangent.
 
oh dang ok
 
I'll give you a more direct hint: Is $3+4i$ divisible by $2+i$?
 
yeah $3 + 4i = (2 + i)^2$
I wrote it somewhere up there^
but I thought it was more of an observation... hmm I wonder how it is important
 
It suggests that $2+i$ might be irreducible but $3+4i$ for sure is not.
Can you prove that $2+i$ must be irreducible?
Other than brute force.
 
Is there a way to see that $2 + i$ divides $3 + 4i$ without noticing the square?
 
7:40 PM
Well, $|2+i|^2 = 5$ and $|3+4i|^2 = 25$ and $5|25$, so it suggests it's certainly possible. But, no, you have to check by dividing. The same numerical thing would have happened with $2-i$ and $2-i$ does not divide $3+4i$.
We had a discussion in here a few weeks ago about seeing the division algorithm in the Gaussian integers.
 
hmm I was thinking field polynomials maybe so you write $x^2 - Tr(a + bi)x + N(a + bi)$

For $2 +i$ you write $x^2 - 4x + 5$
For $3 + 4i$ you write $x^2 - 6x + 25$

Since the norm is the modulus and the trace is $2a$
but yeah idk, those don't factor so good
 
I don't think that helps you relate two Gaussian integers.
 
nah :/ I guess I got stuck thinking about norms and stuff... let's see...
 
norms are a great approach
 
Norm Chomsky
 
7:44 PM
ok so you mentioned euclidean algorithm so maybe it's something like

$3 + 4i = a (2 + i) + b$ where $N(b) < N(2+i)<N(3 + 4i)$?
which is $5$
 
what are you trying to prove
 
idk, try to relate these 2 Gaussian integers in an interesting way
TedPuzzle
 
one is the square of the other, what more relation could there be
 
I guess for those two not a lot huh
 
irreducibility of $2+i$ is the more interesting Ted puzzle
 
7:46 PM
right yeah
 
@BalarkaSen smack
 
If $(2 + i)$ is reducible then you can write it as a product of two other guys in $\Bbb Z[i]$
 
right
 
$(2 + i) = (a + bi) (c + di) = ac + adi + cbi - bd$
 
weeps
 
7:50 PM
oh no, this product made Ted sad :?
 
Ted did say without brute force.
 
Ted is a mathematical pacifist
 
people keep mentioning norms so I guess I'll take the norm of both sides for good measure

$5 = (a^2 -b^2)(c^2 - d^2)$ (pretty sure norms are multiplicative so you can do that without breaking the law)
 
Generally opposed to violence (smacks don't count) ...
Why the subtraction, @BigSocks?
 
bc the lads had $i$'s
 
7:52 PM
Hmm ...
 
but uh, since all of this is in $\Bbb Z$ now I guess one of those has gotta be $1$ and the other is $5$
 
that's not the norm, but go ahead and try to continue the argument. you'll note a + instead of a - there will be more desirable.
 
<--- passes the baton to Thor.
 
As shown by Shifrin, brut al.
 
oh yeaaah, i just squared it
 
7:54 PM
Etale, et al.
 
should be a +, you're right
 
i.imgur.com/QMd7JvH.png How does the first line on page 145 follow?
 
So $5 = (a^2 + b^2)(c^2 + d^2)$
 
@polite sum of continuous functions is continuous
 
@Thorgott I meant inequalities, sorry.
 
7:56 PM
Reread the hypotheses, polite.
 
re-read the first line of the proof
 
That's always good advice.
 
And thinking about this for a while it works if $a = 1, b = 2, c = 1, d = 0$ or some permutation of these where the pairs match up
 
I know that $f(x_1) < f(x_2)$, but that shouldn't imply that $f(x_1) - k < 0$?
 
Where did $k$ come from? That's part of the hypotheses.
 
7:58 PM
But I am guessing that none could be $0$ or something like that, and then that's the proof
 
Anyone knows of a nice and calm proof of im($X^TX$)=im($X^T$)?
 
Side question for @BigSocks: What are the units in $\Bbb Z[i]$?
I know lots of proofs, @schn. What constitutes "nice and calm"?
 
Never mind, got it
 
Always reread ... sometimes numerous times, @polite.
 
But isn't this a fake proof in this case? $k$ does not have to be between the two values at a all. It could be way lower than either one, for instance. Or higher.
 
8:00 PM
Try it out, @polite. What happens if so?
 
I tend to be precautious and reread already before my first read
 
well $1, -1$ are in there... I guess anything with norm $1$ so you toss in $i$ and $-i$
 
Never hurts to get an early start, Thor.
 
@TedShifrin Let’s say first course in linear algebra.
 
Right, BigSocks.
 
8:01 PM
oh hold up, that means that one of the two things is a unit
so yeah that's why it's irreducible. because one of the factors will be a unit and the other will be I guess of the same norm as $(2+i)$
 
Well, do you notice that $\text{im}(X^\top X)\subset \text{im}(X)$?
Hint @BigSocks (and then I really am done for a few hours): $5$ is prime.
 
@Thorgott set theorist says this is just a class isomorphism
 
You already noticed that.
 
Well, that means both inequalities are positive
If $k$ is smaller than both.
So it would be a fake proof.
 
Right. So you can't get a sign change.
 
8:02 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti you did a seminar on kunens inconsistency theorem right
 
is @TedShifrin solving 3 questions at the same time?
 
Is it three? Yeah, I guess so.
Not solving. Asking questions.
 
I will ask a fourth if you want
 
But figure 3.8 illustrates my concern, how do we make it work?
 
@TedShifrin v impressive
 
8:04 PM
I have to eat lunch and then interview a prospective MIT student in a few.
 
@user2103480 I did
 
@BalarkaSen yes
 
@TedShifrin Why is that? What does the linear transformation of $X^\top$ do that makes the image of $X^\top X$ a subset?
 
@polite: You're not rereading hypotheses. One of the hypotheses is that $k$ is between the two values.
 
@TedShifrin wait this is for the interesting difference between $3 + 4i$ and $2 + i$?
 
8:05 PM
It's true totally generally. $\text{im}(AB)\subset \text{im}(A)$ always.
So prove that.
Then I'm going to ask you about dimension.
(Well, I'm going to have to leave soon, so I'll give you the assignment, @schn.)
 
I don't like that word "between" there.
 
So I guess $2 + i$ is special in that it has prime norm, but $3 + 4i$ does not have prime norm
 
@TedShifrin Do that :)
 
Tough diddly whether you like it or not.
 
maybe it is closer to being prime because of this
 
8:06 PM
The next step, @schn, is to look at nullity or dimension of kernel. I don't know what notations you're used to.
 
It can be interpreted as $f(x_1) < k < f(x_2),$ in which case it makes sense that $f(x_1) - k < 0$ and $f(x_2) - k > 0$
But if we don't interpret it as that, then I don't see how we can take care of the case which illustrates figure 3.8
 
@schn I hope you meant "I'll do that"
 
@TedShifrin Kernel works.
@BalarkaSen Certainly.
 
There are different ways to do it, but I suggest you notice that $\ker(AB)$ always contains $\ker(B)$. Then in your case I suggest you prove that $\ker(X^\top X)\subset \ker(X)$.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti so what thor describes is basically an isomorphism of the universe
but the thing is that the elementhood relation is not the real elementhood
 
8:08 PM
where?
 
This shows that the kernels are actually equal, and that finishes the proof (with nullity-rank).
The hint for that last one is to take $x\in\ker(X^\top X)$ and consider $(X^\top X)x\cdot x$.
OK, I'm gone.
 
@AlessandroCodenotti mapping x to the set of function from $\{ \emptyset \}$ to itself
 
Thanks.
 
Bye @Ted.
 
@Thorgott here
 
8:09 PM
cya @TedShifrin maytbe later tell me the cool thing!
 
and for the actual elementhood this is not possible with the axiom of choice, right?
 
Well, could anyone else clarify?
 
@user2103480 that's just a bijection, not an elementary embedding, right?
 
@BalarkaSen number theory is fun
 
seems believable
 
8:11 PM
set theory has been defeated
you guys should move on
 
@AlessandroCodenotti it's clearly an isomorphism of structures that can interpret set theory, but no not an elementary embedding. That was basically my question, I'd think this is just because these are different sethood relations
@Thorgott to set theorists it's a subset of the universe that is basically an exact copy of the universe, so I think this is cooler than a natural iso :P
 
it's a subcategory naturally isomorphic to the ambient category
 
I was thinking that sentences like "$\phi(y)=\exists x(x\in y\land x\text{ is not a function})$" are satisfied by many sets, but messed up by the map, but your point is also good
 
well the sentence is true inside the structure :P
universe isomorphism

universe isomorphism
gtfo category theorist
I be taking ultrapowers of the whole universe while category theorist be drawing arrows between their arrows and feel like they reinvented the world
 
if L/K is normal and Ls <= L is the maximal separable subextension then is Ls/K normal?
 
also, category theorists feel accomplished when taking $V^1$ while set theorists take $V^{\Bbb B}$ for any boolean algebra $\Bbb B$
40
A: Why aren't functions used predominantly as a model for mathematics instead of set theory etc.?

Joel David HamkinsLet me explain one sense in which using functions or sets provides exactly equivalent foundations of mathematics, in a way that is connected with some deep ideas in set theory. There is a translation back and forth between these foundational choices. For example, it is a standard exercise in set...

@BigSocks shush got luried again
why does this keep happening
thought after the HoTT course I'd stop getting luried
 
@user2103480 absolutely lost my sides
the ride doesn't end
 
@BigSocks 147 pages? What is this, the notes Lurie scribbled on a napkin over lunch yesterday?
 
Such a great guy, trying to make it short sweet and to the point
 
somebody make lurie interested in universal logic
@Thorgott shhh kid... want some logic?
 
8:31 PM
>a pushout of logics
 
it's actually pretty smart from what I know
you can glue logics
so that you get from a common logic one that also has logical operators of both
and you can take "fibrings" to make them interact, so that out of first-order logic and propositional modal logic (say, S4 modal logic) you obtain first-order modal logic
 
modal logic went downhill after season 4 tbh
 
yeah, all those new worlds
(in some forms, modal logic is basically "possible world logic")
Which is why they were/are of interest for theologists and philosphers
 
pushout of logics wtf
 
if I had enough funds for myself I'd seriously just study universal logic
 
8:41 PM
this is the reason war on drugs cannot be stopped
 
I can stop anytime
 
The dendroidal set of inferences In fΩ(L) of a Tarskian logic L is defined
to be the dendroidal set HomGenLog(Ω, U(L)). This defines a functor
In fΩ(L): LogT arsk → SetΩop
.
 
and I think that's beautiful
 
I have done ordinary least squares on the equation $y_i=a+bx_i+ce^{x_i}+\epsilon_i$, where $E(\epsilon_i)=0$. I’d like to know when the matrix $X^\top X$ is invertible. Is there a way to find that out by looking at $a+bx_i+ce^{x_i}$ and realizing it can have at most two roots, and then...?
 
a logic is just a topos
 
8:50 PM
topologic?
horrifying
we will end up completing the system
 
of german idealism?
 
yes
 
@LeakyNun nah that's just higher order intuitionistic logic
@BalarkaSen well isnt it good that no one completed it
 
9:24 PM
Ok so haven't started learning the cohomology chapter of topo II yet
anybody care to explain to me the general story? I saw that I have to learn about rings and ideals again
are ideals just the things you can quotient rings by while preserving the ring structure
 
Here's the algebra recap: Take the chain complex, dualize it, take homology of the dualized complex, stuff happens.
There's geometry beneath the algebra, but I'm not apt enough to explain it.
 
@Balarka any hint on how to prove that identity for $\sum f(x,z)$ ?
 
@user2103480 yes
equivalently, they're precisely the kernels of ring homomorphisms out of the ring
 
I feel like it's just combinatorics 101 but my brain sucks
 
and they're precisely the submodules of the ring when considered as module over itself
 
9:35 PM
@Thorgott yeah that's sensible
is the kernel of a ring homomorphism an ideal
 
The two elementary reasons why cohomology is useful are 1. the cohomology groups naturally assemble into a cohomology ring and this ring structure carries more information than just the groups do, 2. Poincaré duality
 
hm yeah those I know
okay it is
and so I need ideals to define cohomology rings or what
 
no
there isn't really any ring theory involved
 
Could someone review my proof please?
 
okay
 
9:45 PM
Given a real-valued function $f$ which is continuous on $[0,1]$. Assume that $0 \le f(x) \le 1$ for each $x \in [0,1]$. Prove that there is at least one point $c \in [0,1]$ for which $f(c) = c$.

Define $g(x) = f(x) - x$. Then $g(0) = f(0)$ and $g(1) = f(1) - 1$. If $g(0) = 0,$ then $f(0) = 0$. If $g(1) = 0$, then $f(1) = 1$ and in either case this is satisfied. We can suppose then that $0 < c < 1$, and so $g(c) = f(c) - c$. Since $0 < f(c) < 1$, we have that $-c < g(c) < 1 - c$. It's clear that $-c$ and $1-c$ have opposiet signs, so by Bolzano's theorem, there exists a $k \in (c,1-c)$ such
 
What is it you call Bolzano's theorem?
 
Let $f$ be continuous at each point of a closed interval $[a,b]$ and assume that $f(a)$ and $f(b)$ have opposite signs. Then there is at least one $c$ in the open interval $(a,b)$ such that $f(c) = 0$.
 
I don't know, you never define c in your proof
 
yeah, this is dubious
 
weak IVT
 
9:54 PM
ah, indeed it is
 
yeah, it's sometimes called Bolzano's theorem
not to be confused with the Bolzano-Weierstrass theorem
 
@Astyx I did define it, "suppose then that $0< c < 1$"
 
you're not applying Bolzano's theorem correctly
 
also $0<f(c)<1$ need not be a strict inequality on either side, though that's not a substantial issue
 
9:57 PM
Doesn't it?
We took care of the $c = 0$ and $c = 1$ cases
 
but $f(c)$ could equal $0$ or $1$ for some $c$ that isn't $0$ or $1$
@politeproofs You tell me why you think you're applying it correctly
 
@politeproofs "We can suppose then that $0<c<1$" implies we already know what $c$ is, to my understanding
 
@Astyx We do, it's a real number between 0 and 1 :D
 
"Let $0<c<1$"
Or even better "Let $c$ be a real number between 0 and 1"
 
Sure, but I don't think this is the main meat of the proof.
 
10:00 PM
No, but the way you say it is very confusing
It seems like you're talking about the $c$ in the statement, and that you've deduced it's (strictly) between 0 and 1
Even though you still don't know it exists
 
I proved that it exists by taking care of the endpoint cases
And then the case that isn't the endpoint case
 
No, you've only proved that either one of the endpoint works, either both of those are nonzero
 
Huh? It could be $0$
 
I've already said what the actual issue is
 
I want to give up on math.
 
10:04 PM
mood
 
I have no idea why I am wrong in this case.
 
I don't think you're wrong, I think you word it poorly
And wording is essential
 
Still don't understand.
 
again, specify how you are applying Bolzano's theorem
 
@Thorgott I don't know why you said that I am applying it incorrectly.
Which part was incorrect?
 
10:09 PM
What is the $a$, what is the $b$, why are $f(a)$ and $f(b)$ of opposite sign?
 
If you think it is correct, you ought to be able to explain it to me.
 
I guess you are correct, it is unfinished
This kind of stuff is very demotivating
How do I finish it the proof?
 
Wanting to apply Bolzano's theorem is the right idea. Which function do you want to apply it to? What conditions do you need to apply it? How do you ensure these are satisfied?
 
10:24 PM
To $g(x) = f(x) - x$, and that $g$ is continuous on the interval $[-c,1-c]$ (true) and that $g$ has opposite signs at $g(-c)$ and $g(1-c)$
 
Is $c$ still supposed to be arbitrary? Surely not every $c$ will work.
 
No, $c \in [0,1]$
 
So it's arbitrary?
 
I don't know what you mean
 
I don't know what $c$ is and my point is that not every $c$ will work.
It's not hard to guess two points at which $g$ has opposite signs, for the record, think back to the start of your proof
 
10:41 PM
Oh.. $g(0)$ and $g(1)$ need to have opposite signs
 
yup!
 
But since $g(0) = f(0) - 0 = f(0), $ and $g(1) = f(1) - 1$, and $0 \le f(x) \le x$, $0 \le f(0) \le 1$
 
@Thor: Did you and BigSocks get to the punchline, I assume?
 
well, of course they could also be $0$, but you already excluded those cases
 
Oh, but now what
They could potentially have different signs
Argh!
 
10:44 PM
why "potentially"? didn't we just say they always do (except in the 0 cases)?
@Ted we didn't, I think the conversation just kind of disintegrated
 
Bigsocks went to bed I think
 
Awfully early. BigSocks is somewhere in the western hemisphere :P
Anyhow, we were basically at the punchline with my interruptions.
 
Ah, no, he just stopped talking about when you left
3 hours ago, by BigSocks
cya @TedShifrin maytbe later tell me the cool thing!
 
Oh. I figured you guys would polish it off.
 
I went to watch a movie with my family
 
10:46 PM
A good movie?
 
The best
 
Zut alors. Lequel?
 
A very silly french movie. La Cité de la peur
It's like a french monty python
 
Ah, haven't heard of that. I'll look around.
 
Don't expect anything too intellectual :p
 
10:48 PM
Nor so violent as Godard?
 
It's not really violent no, just very silly
 
No luck, unless I go to France for Netflix.
I can get lots of stuff on DVD, but pas ça.
 
Too bad
 
@TedShifrin Sorry for the ping, but since we were talking about the proof of $\text{im}{(X^\top X)}=\text{im}{(X^\top)}$, do you know if this identity can be used to derive the normal equation in the method of least squares?
 
Yes, it's relevant. You can actually see that in one of my YouTube lectures.
 
10:53 PM
Do you have the exact link?
 
Somewhere in this one. Somewhere around minute 22 is exactly the point you're asking.
 
Will check it out. Thanks!
 
"You can see that in one of my YouTube lectures." Quite the flex
@Thorgott Yes, but potentially not. We need to prove that they do :(
 
you just proved this earlier, didn't you
 
Now I am doubting that I did
 

« first day (3825 days earlier)      last day (1189 days later) »