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00:00 - 21:0021:00 - 00:00

00:01
@Sophie, sorry for the late response, just got around to a piece of paper, and looks like you might have gotten what you were looking for? Anyway, this is too fun to pass up, and perhaps you should try to play with it yourself to get some more intuition.. the efficient way is to correspond your group to $S_3$ and see that the relationship indeed hold in $S_3$, but perhaps it's instructive (and certainly fun) to play with what you already have. So, you have
$a^2 = b^3 = (ab)^2 = e \iff a = a^{-1};\ b^2 = b^{-1};\ ab = (ab)^{-1} = b^{-1}a^{-1}$. Then I claim that the generated group is the fo
well, iterated $ab^j \ldots ,\ b^ja \ldots$, and composed arbitrarily with existing strings.. but we never have new elements that aren't already in the set I described because of the reduction rules we deduced..
@BalarkaSen what did you not like about it?
00:25
Do cocycles in dynamical systems have anything to do with those in algebraic topology?
Given two groups with the same cardinality, is it true that this condition alone guarantees that there is an isomorphism between them?
@Billy Rubina, certainly not
consider $\mathbb{Z}_4$ and $\mathbb{Z}_2 \times \mathbb{Z}_2$
Ah yeah found it too, so it's group cohomology without spelling it out
@JoeShmo Thanks!
00:36
Ah, @Sophie, missed one - $(aba)b = (ab)^2 = e \iff aba = b^{-1} = b^2$. @BillyRubina, sure thing.
@JoeShmo Interesting
Also, $ab^2a = ba^2 = b$, I think that's all of them..
00:52
@MikeMiller I was asking in what area of mathematics the idea of a clifford algebra is first introduced, since they come up in quantum field theory rather out of the blue, I was curious what kind of mathematics texts would talk about them in a non-physics related context.
01:16
@Charlie right but you have a hidden assumption that they are usually introduced at all!!
They show up in spin geometry. Up to you whether you already want to call that physics.
Then when you study index theory of operators you find a great many of those indices are dirac operators. Index theory and spin geometry inform each other, traditionally
01:46
@MikeMiller any idea of what "contractible" might mean in a context where there is no obvious topology? Like something like "the space of assignment of signs to the vertices of a simplex is contractible"?
I should say "space of such assignments" as if it is a proper subset
I am thinking it might be something like they are all in bijection?
02:03
@anakhro Can you send me the precise sentence?
W/ context
It was during a lecture, so it's kind of vague as it is, sadly. I will get more information hopefully and report back when I do.
03:02
RIP
 
1 hour later…
04:08
Anyone here ever try to compose music? I know there is a degree of mathematical theory to music, but I've never known if the connection is deep to enough to allow skills to directly translate from math to music.
04:32
@Rithaniel: If you decide to compose twelve-tone music, then you find the Klein four-group everywhere. :P
@Rithaniel I'm currently reading about: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Schillinger_System
Franz Absil has some stuff on it: youtu.be/EvTXx7Z29cU
I bought his book in the Schillinger Method.
And I kinda went to math because of: springer.com/gp/book/9783764357313
 
2 hours later…
06:47
Morning/afternoon/evening
Suppose I have a group hom $f : G \to H$ for which $\ker f$ is open and let $U \subseteq H$ be an open neighbourhood of $1$. Then $\ker f \subseteq f^{-1}(U)$, so can I conclude that $f^{-1}(U)$ is open by writing it as a union of translates of $\ker f$?
That seems non-dumb to me
07:02
@Rithaniel I have been trying to learn jazz for sometime now. What I have seen and heard mostly is that the mathematical aspects come when you deal with various tunings mostly. So if you go to things like microtonality then you can do some cool things.
@EdwardEvans in general a group that contains a nonempty open set is open
@Leaky simply because translation is a homeomorphism right? I mean in my case that $f^{-1}(U) = \bigcup_{g \in f^{-1}(U)} g\ker f$
wait, $U$ isn't a group
I guess it still works
Aight ty
@Sayan @Rithaniel Check out Adam Neely if you're interested in this kinda thing :D Sample video: youtube.com/watch?v=ghUs-84NAAU
For instance things like Shepard's tones and stuff happens because of superimposing sine waves. But such ideas like Shepard's tone also happen for tuning systems as well. Look at the work of Benedetti
@EdwardEvans lol that's where I took my inspiration from
07:13
hahah, I love his videos
once I saw the word mIcRoToNaLiTy it instantly made me post Adam Neely
I'm like an Adam Neely sleeper agent
Yup he's an awesome dude.
what about Jacob Collier
yeah that guy is cool too, but Adam Neely is more likeable (imo obv)
still, Jacob Collier is crazy
Jacob Collier is not human, hence it's better for our souls to prefer Adam Neely
07:18
For all the djent heads here, listen to Tigaran Hamasayan
@EdwardEvans so, what are you studying
@Astyx salut !
I'm just studying the first chapter of a book called "The local Langlands correspondence for $\operatorname{GL}_2$"
and this chapter is about locally profinite groups and smooth representations of them
but I haven't yet gotten to smooth reps
Salut
@EdwardEvans so your map in fact factors through a finite group?
err maybe, the group is only locally profinite though, not profinite, so it's not a limit of finite groups
but every open nbhd of 1 contains a profinite subgroup
07:27
aha, so like Qp
sure, in fact the additive and multiplicative groups of any non-archimedean local field are locally profinite
sure
who needs Qp if you have $\Omega_p$
the point of introducing them is to do fourier analysis on them I guess
but I'm not there yet
lol
(I dont think enough people know about $\Omega_p$)
don't people usually write $\Bbb C_p$
or is that a different thing
07:32
$\Bbb C_p$ is not complete enough
wot
I thought $\Bbb C_p$ was the completion of $\overline{\Bbb Q_p}$
In mathematics, a field K with an absolute value is called spherically complete if the intersection of every decreasing sequence of balls (in the sense of the metric induced by the absolute value) is nonempty: B 1 ⊇ B 2 ⊇ ⋯ ⇒ ⋂ n ∈ N B n...
Interesting, I didn't know that :)
I dont think it's particularly useful lmao
well it mentions that it's useful in non-archimedean functional analysis, which is relevant to the Iwasawa theory of p-adic lie groups (according to some research statement I read on some prof's homepage)
07:38
fair enough
that's pretty niche though hahaha
I only know of it because of Scholze's paper
Ah that might be where I've seen the symbol haha
 
3 hours later…
10:10
Thoughts on Vakil's The Rising sea ?
@Alessandro is a fanboy
@Astyx c'est plein d'examples utils
(exemples utiles)
10:28
merci
 
1 hour later…
11:42
@EdwardEvans that was an interesting video. Gave me something good to start my day with, too.
@Rithaniel nice :)
12:42
a fanboy might be too strong
But his notes were the best source I found when I took AG
I'm following them as I progress through the AG course I'm taking
I find my prof hard to follow
I think that AG is inherently hard to follow
I finally got a grasp of the goal of it, or so I think
the goal of AG is to be so difficult and so ubiquitous within pure mathematics that the bar for entry is high enough that nobody can finish a PhD in pure mathematics
it's a conspiracy from the top profs in the world to keep their positions
this shit goes right to the top man
Does anyone else find it odd that no promine....
12:54
rofl
Grothendieck actually faked his death but he his still pulling the strings from the shadows
Scholze is just Grothendieck in a wig
Grothendieck is actually Michael jackson
confirmed
woah
I wish Lukas were still here and could just teach me number theory
I'm taking number theory this year
12:58
The dream
@Astyx what kind
@Alessandro I just looked at his WhatsApp to see if he had changed his status or smth and it said "Online"
Algebraic
@EdwardEvans You could also write him you know :P
@Astyx Nice
13:01
Yeah I already did and he just read it
I don't like to pry
I think the prof intends to do a quick overview of analytical methods as well
some class number formula or smth
13:14
@MikeMiller ah I see haha, ty
IIRC the reason Clifford Algebra come up in quantum field theory is because they are essential in representation of symmetry groups used in particle physics
So there's a particular interest for physicists to study them, and that involves maths
Does anyone know of method of finding Jordan form Jordan chains without backtracking
I mean a simple way to find the generalised eigenspace
Physicists, not physicians
yes they are used to construct representations of the Lorentz group, but as with most things in physics the mathematics is introduced without much justification. I was just curious where they arise in mathematics
And the wikipedia page was beyond me
wikipedia pages often are
13:25
They give you representations of the Lorenz group yeah but also of the Spin groups
In an additive category, why is the morphism $A\to 0\to B$ necessarilly the zero morphism of $Hom(A,B)$ ?
I remember seeing this neat proof of the dirac equation using clifford algebras in Folland's book
An additive category is one that has all biproducts, right?
yup
Meh I don't want to think about this, sorry
13:29
I feel this should be very elementary but I don't see it
I tried to add it to an arbitrary element and I would have to draw a diagram
Forget that
Oh
@Astyx If $f: A \to B$ is a morphism then $f_*: \text{Hom}(X, A) \to \text{Hom}(X, B)$ probably has $f_*(0) = 0$, is that right?
It looks right to me
Then here you have the composite $\text{Hom}(A, A) \to \text{Hom}(A, 0) \to \text{Hom}(A, B)$
The second group is zero
And that composite is in the image of the map $\text{Hom}(A, 0) \to \text{Hom}(A, B)$
Oh ok
Thank you
To prove the claim about $f_*$ I assume you have to work
13:33
It's because $f_*$ is a group morphism
Still seems like you have to work to show that
If you're chasing it down to first principles
Maybe it's straightforward though
My definition of additive category assumes group operation in $Hom(A,B)$ is distributive over composition
So $f\circ (a+b) = f\circ a + f\circ b$ ie $f_*(a+b) = f_*(a)+f_*(b)$
I'm sure it follows from the existence of all bipiroducts
13:52
Hi there, does anyone know if $|f|$ is generally integrable for an integrable function $f$ or if that's only true for Riemann-integrability?
Also, how well known is this (in general or just for Riemann-integrability), is this well known enough that I as a math student at the end of my bachelor's degree should know this? (I think I've got some pretty major knowledge gaps in my basic math knowledge so I'm not sure)
Doesn't integrable precisely mean that $|f|$ is integrable ?
What
is new
My diffgeo assignment wanted us to prove something about osculating circles I just defined them as having centers that are focal points for the Gauss map
Morse theory indomitable
14:08
What's blowing up in the context of AG ?
You take a point
and then boom it
and then you put some projective nonsense where that point used to be
You turn x into CP^{dim - 1}
And magically singularities are gone
It's like taking a 2D diagram of a knot and pushing the crosisng strands off each other
14:10
you look at a scheme X and a sheaf of ideals I and take proj of I^0 + I^1 + ...
no u
No, keep going, that resembles what my prof said
a sheaf of ideals? Don't you blow up along closed subschemes usually? Or is that the same thing
So you get a graded ring and take the proj space ?
Awful people
14:13
@Astyx Yes I have no intuition why this is the right notion @Alessandro You have a sheaf of ideals corresponding to a closed subscheme, given by the ideal of functions vanishing on it
But this is more general because you can blowup along singular nonsense like (x^2)
The resulting objects are Not Nice
instead of getting rid of singularities you get singularities. I think if you blow C^2 at (x^2, xy, y^2) you get Whitney umbrella
@BalarkaSen Of course not, you blew them up
lmfao
@Astyx Why do you want to know this
Aren't you thinking about like complex manifolds
To understand the course I'm following
14:16
what is the name of the course
Algebraic geometry: schemes and cohomology
You're doomed my man
Aren't we all ?
mf DOOMed
I suppose that means sheaf cohomology
14:17
I just accepted my demise
@Astyx Hm not sure if that's an equivalent definition to the definition I know which is that $f$ is $\mu$-integrable if $\int f^+ d\mu < \infty$ and $\int f^- d\mu < \infty$ for $f^+ = max(f,0)$ and $f^- = max(-f,0)$ (it then holds that $\int f \dmu = \int f^+ d\mu - \int f^- d\mu$).
Yes, but $\int |f| = \int f^+ + \int f^-$
($|f| = f^+ + f^-$)
What to study
Maybe some
SINGULARITY THEORY
@Astyx Ah yes. Now I got it. Thank you!
You're welcome
14:28
@BalarkaSen Something written by Gromov, of course
close, Arnold
I don't think I've ever read anything written by him
Schwarzenegger ?
2
I'm reading a paper my supervisor suggested to me now, and I only care about metrizable stuff, but the author does everything very generally. Long story short uniformities are a pain
14:37
Pretty embarrassed about how long that took me to get. Anyone got any tips about how to be smarter and/or think faster? lol
@Astyx "Arnold" "Compute my cohomology sequences" BRUH
Couldn't think of anything better
More sleep and caffeine I guess lol. Read. Meditate. Eat healthy (especially fish and green leaves). Anything else? Although I guess that's already a lot
Practice and go to the bottom of things
That's my advice in maths in general
But everyone has a different experience of course
Evidently spectral sequences were not for
Arnold. Nonetheless, there is such a thing as
Arnold’s spectral sequence [9], a humble object
in the world of his discoveries, resembling the
asteroid Vladarnolda in the solar system (the
stability of which he proved approximately at the
time of our conversation in the canteen), named
after him.
14:46
@Astyx Thanks, that's certainly good advice for math.
For the extended hamming code, van lint does this calculation for expected number of errors
I'm not able to understand why the summation has an (i+1)(n choose i).. instead of i*(n choose i)
15:26
Heya, what does it mean to say that a mathematical fact is true only "formally"?
its not true, informally
:P
I have glanced at the Wikipedia article relating mathematical formalism to the Platonism question, but I don't think this is the same distinction.
What is the specific context?
My only guess is that it might be intended to mean that the statement is mathematically true, but has no other application in math.
1
A: A Few Conceptual Questions About Laplace Transforms and Moment Generating Functions

Qiaochu Yuan The MGF is $\mathbb{E}(\exp(tX))$ and, for a discrete random variable, the probability generating function (whose coefficients are the PMF) is $\mathbb{E}(t^X)$, so passing from one to the other amounts at least formally to a substitution $t \mapsto \log t$. If $X$ is a continuous random variabl...

It is used several times in this answer and its comments.
Here they mean in the sense of formal power series
15:30
i.e., "at least formally you get the "moments" of the original function $f$ back"
You forget about convergence and play around with symbols
See here
Okay, so for an analogy, would we say, "formally, $1$ divided by anything is its multiplicative inverse," where "formally" implies not worrying about the case of $0$?
You can say $1/x \cdot x = 1$, formally, yes. I wouldn't write it as you did.
A lot of mathematics is about making things as "free" as possible, and this is the context in which I understand the term "formally". With the least possible structure and with the least possible relations between the symbols involved, the identity is true.
It is not used frequently, so I wouldn't recommend using it frequently. It's usage will become clear as you understand the context its used in (eg I have seen it used very little outside of people talking about formal power series, category theory, or mathematical logic)
Okay, I think it's counterintuitive relative to the English meaning of the word; I would expect this to be called "casual," and "formal" to reference the more verbose, technically accurate description of the fact. But I get it now, tyvm.
Haha, that's a good point.
15:38
Casual power series lol
Nonchalant power series
Flippant power series
Sloppy series bruh
Spooky power series for october
Bruh do you even power series?
Nah I laurent
15:43
@SayanChattopadhyay "laurent expand" used to be a popular joke in the hostel corridors in here
(if you dont speak hindi you're not supposed to get it)
I do and I don't get it, wth
lmao
F
you have to pronounce laurent correctly
lmfaoooo
I was pronouncing laurent the wrong way this whole damn time
typical
@feynhat
Anyone got a link to a proof that division algebra on finite fields are commutative ?
15:52
its called Wedderburn's little theorem if that helps
the proof is basically class equation
Cheers
 
2 hours later…
17:36
0
Q: Is this knotted graph knotted?

Akiva Weinberger Above, I've drawn a knotted 3-valent graph. I suspect that it's not isotopic to the "unknotted" version below, but I'm not sure. Is it? I know about fundamental groups of knot complements, but it seems like that's probably more work than necessary. The easiest way would be to show that it's the ...

?
18:08
in the gcd(a,b) = d, there exists ax + by = d what are the (x,y) called here?
 
1 hour later…
19:17
Compute $\mathrm{x}=8623^{18691^{*} 72}$ mod 1997 using the smallest number of operations (multiplications).
How to do this ?
Any kind of hint is ok ?
19:29
Am I right in thinking that $\displaystyle \int_{y_0}^{y} \frac{2x}{x^2 + t^2} dt = 2x(\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x}) - \tan^{-1}(\frac{y_0}{x}))$?
19:46
Hi i wonder, if 1/n is a repeating decimal, in which case will the repetend has odd digits?
e.g. 1/7 = 0.(142857) the repetend has 6 (even) digits.
20:11
athos all n such that there exists some odd number o for which 10^o = 1 (mod n)
Is it true that if $D \subseteq$ is a domain(?), $\gamma_1$ and $\gamma_2$ are two closed paths in $D$ that are homotopic, and $f$ is analytic on $D$, the $\int_{\gamma_1} f(z) dz = \int_{\gamma_2} f(z) dz$?
user193319 yes it is
Hmm...something seems off though...shouldn't those integrals both be zero?
no, they need not be closed paths
oh whoops, by closed paths you meant a loop ?
yes then they should both be zero
Yeah. E.g., a circle.
This is confusing...I am trying to integrate $\int_{C} \frac{Log(z+2}{(z+1)^2 z}$ over the curve $C = \{z \in \Bbb{C} \mid |z| = \frac{3}{2} \}$. I want to isolate the points $0$ and $-1$with smaller circles and split the integral into two pieces...but something seems off.
How does one do this?
20:20
so integrate over the circle of radius 3/2?
The circles would be $C_1 = \{z \in \Bbb{C} \mid |z+1| = \epsilon\}$ and $C_2 = \{z \in \Bbb{C} | |z| = \epsilon \}$, where $\epsilon$ is small enough so that the circles don't overlap and they stay inside $C$.
I don't think I can do that directly because we have singularity (poles?) at $0$ and $1$, which are interior to $C$.
aren't Log(z+2)'s poles on {(x,0): x<=-2}?
i mean its branch
No, you have to look at the denominator to.
oh sorry i misread
In that form you can't simply apply Cauchy's integral formula.
20:22
thought that was a product
okay, so can you not just apply residue theorem?
No, we haven't learned that yet.
or is that not allowed or something
well, the proof of residue theorem will then provide for a means to solve this problem
the same steps of the proof that is, will be applicable here
(just substitute in the special case of your function and follow the steps)
I don't understand.
The problem should be simpler than that.
I don't have time to work through that proof...My homework is due shortly.
What is $Log(z+2)$ ?
they mean the principal branch
i.e. Log(z) having branch cut on the negative real axis
20:28
But the principal isn't analytical on C is it ?
yes, but Log(z+2) is analytic on the domain they have provided
the issues are the poles that arise due to the denominator
Oh yeah my bad
I know that I am supposed to break $\displaystyle \int_{C} \frac{Log(z+2)}{(z+1)^2 z}$ into $\displaystyle \int_{C_1} \frac{\frac{Log(z+2)}{z}}{(z+1)^2} dz$ and $\displaystyle \int_{C_2} \frac{\frac{Log(z+2)}{(z+1)^2}}{z} dz$, but that doesn't seem right because those should be $0$.
why should those be zero?
there are singularities inside those discs
maybe you should just parameterize the circle and do the integral by hand
(if you don't want to use residue theorem)
But $C_1$ doesn't contain the singularity of $\frac{Log(z+2)}{z}$, and it is analytic on the interior of $C_1$.
Same goes for $C_2$.
It's not that I don't want to use the Residue theorem, I am not allowed. And my professor wants me to do it this way, not explicitly parametrize the circle.
He wants me to use Cauchy's integral formula
20:32
ah okay, yes I see what you are trying to do
wait but why are we talking about Log(z+2)/z
what did you do to the (z+1)^2
Why would they be zero ?
@Astyx Because, e.g., $\frac{Log(z+2)}{z}$ is analytic on and in $C_1$ and $C_1$ is a closed curve, so the integral is $0$....But maybe I am wrong.
But you're not taking the integral of that, you're taking the integral of that multiplied with $1/z$ or $1/(z+1)^2$
So the result is given by the Cauchy integral formula, as you stated above
Im back
Are we dividing by zeroes
@Astyx Oh, so are you saying that $\displaystyle \int_{C} \frac{Log(z+2)}{(z+1)^2 z}$ literally equals $\displaystyle \int_{C_1} \frac{\frac{Log(z+2)}{z}}{(z+1)^2} dz + \int_{C_2} \frac{\frac{Log(z+2)}{(z+1)^2}}{z} dz$?
20:41
Yes, because the path $C$ is homotopic to a path that starts with $C_1$, goes to $C_2$ in a straight line, does $C_2$ and comes back to $C_1$ taking the same path in the other direction
Something like $C\sim C_1 + l + C_2 -l$
Where $l$ is a path linking $C_1$ and $C_2$
but how does cauchys integral formula work here, since C_1,C_2 still have singularities inside?
The integrands are of the form $f(z)/(z-\zeta)^n$ with f analytical, which is exactly what the Cauchy integral formula lets you compute
oh sorry! im getting that confused with cauchy goursat lol
its been a while since i've done complex analysis
you're completely right
yup that should definitely work now
deformation theorem + cauchy integral formula
@AkivaWeinberger, I don't understand the last picture. What do you mean?
I thought he was only drawing a stick man
20:47
Hello everyone, I was wondering about this thing: If we take the left and right cosets of a subgroup H of G, can I prove that for some Ha, there isn't a b such that Ha=bH, ie. ${Ha: a \in G} \neq {bH: b \in G}$. I am thinking I can do it by counter-example, ofc I will need a non-abelian G, since for an abelian G, H would be normal, so the left cosets would be the same as the right ones.
He's asking if those collapse moves preserve knottedness
@JoeShmo Click on the question for more words
hrmp hrmp because the two aren't homotopically equivalent
I'll click for more words
If you take a Hopf link and connect the components by an arc in a simple way, the resulting shape is called Hopf handcuffs
Hopfcuff lol
20:49
If you do the transformation in the second image to the Hopf handcuffs, you get my knotted graph from the first image.
I don't claim that the result of the transformation is isotopic to the original.
@BalarkaSen That sounds like a Hogwarts house
Hopflecuff
You're a knot theorist, Harry
gotcha
I found a reference that answers my question (see comments)
but I still think a better proof is out there
20:51
So now that I am thinking about it, is there a connection between the right and left cosets of a group that's not normal? I mean both types of cosets obey Lagrange, but I am looking if there is another connection.
especially since the question of iterating the transformation is still open
Like, you can do that transformation again and again, and intuitively the result is still linked
and I don't have a proof
I have transcended my material existence after hearing this
Btw, am I right in thinking that $\displaystyle \int_{y_0}^{y} \frac{2x}{x^2 + t^2} dt = 2x(\tan^{-1}(\frac{y}{x}) - \tan^{-1}(\frac{y_0}{x}))$?
@BalarkaSen Harry did you put your name into the speakers of fire
20:53
LOL
said Dumbledoor calmly
Astyx your youtube recommendation is my youtube recommendation
@Astyx DIDDAYAPUTYANAMEINDAGOBLETOFFAIA
"Calmer than you are" - Walter from The Big Lebowski
20:55
@user193319 almost, there's no 2x, just 2
Hopflecuff.. I chuckled
Chuckle... I am in chuckles.
By the way
whats up with all the harry potter references, anyway?
I only found like one reference that called it Hopf handcuffs
but it makes sense to me so I'm going with it
@JoeShmo Astyx started it
20:59
Sorry
Ahem, I'd like to buy a pair, ahem.
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