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3:03 AM
I am told that $\lim_{x \to 6} \frac{f(x)-15}{x-4} = 8$ and $\lim_{x \to 4}\frac{f(x)-15}{x-4} = 3$. I've easily determined that $\lim_{x \to 6} f(x) = 31$. How do I find the $\lim_{x \to 4} f(x)$?
 
i am looking over a research paper on poker suit isomorphism, and one of hte introductory paragraphs is rather cryptic to me
the paragraph reads as follows:
Our first building block will be a procedure for indexing
M-rank sets, which are sets of M cards of the same suit.
With out loss of generality, let us consider the ranks to be in
{0, 1, . . . , N} and consider a set in decreasing order.
The colex function (Bollobas 1986), provides precisely
this indexing. As much of the indexing scheme is based off
the same principles, we describe the construction here.
Without loss of generality, we order the sets lexographically. For example if M = 2, h4, 1i > h3, 0i > h2, 1i. Given
the actual paper is here
i am having a hard time following his illustration that <4,1> > <3,0> > <2,1> or what that even means since it seems like it wasnt explained anywhere?
 
 
1 hour later…
4:16 AM
@Jeff Is it as simple as the same method for the first one, but realizing that since $\lim\limits_{x \to 4}\frac{-15}{x-4}$ DNE then the whole limit can't exist? Also, what happened to the "Reply" feature in this chat?
 
 
1 hour later…
5:36 AM
@Jeff The reply did just disappear. Dunno! If the limit the quotient exists and the denominator goes to $0$, what must the numerator go to?
 
 
5 hours later…
10:25 AM
Why does the Dolbeault cohomology use the $\bar \partial$ operator and not the $\partial$ one ?
 
10:47 AM
@Astyx You want the 0th cohomology to be holomorphic forms
 
Oh that makes sense
What happens if you take $\partial$ ? I expect you get something isomorphic ?
 
I don't really remember! I think that might interchange (p,q) and (q,p) cohomology
Yeah seems right
 
Scary
 
I think the isomorphism is just conjugation actually
 
Yeah
 
 
2 hours later…
12:41 PM
Can someone tell me where is Ron Maimon these days?
 
Hasn't he been banned for years
 
I thought someone might now where is he now
 
At home or work, most likely
Googling his name in quotes quickly shows he doesn't seem to be active much anywhere on the internet under his own name
 
Okay
 
 
1 hour later…
2:06 PM
What's the name for the curve plotting points produces? It's used in controls engineering...
tip of my tongue..
With Root Locus...
A term to describe the plotting of a shape?
Or the path..
Lol, I think it's just the locus.
 
zero-locus?
 
2:29 PM
Is the point of the Dolbeault cohomology that it's a finer one than de Rham cohomology because it imposes holomorphic forms ?
But it's still the same as any complex cohomology no ?
I've heard all cohomology theories were "isomorphic"
 
2:42 PM
@Astyx I don't understand this statement
@Astyx Any collection of groups $E^\bullet(X,A)$ whose input is a pair of a topological space $X$ and a subspace $A$, and which satisfies the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms, is canonically isomorphic to singular cohomology $H^*\bullet(X,A;G)$ with coefficients in some Abelian group $G$
The input for Dolbeault cohomology is a complex manifold, which is more structure than a topological space and for which that structure exists only on very few topological spaces
It's completely incomparable, at least from abstract principles like you're talking about
If $M$ happens to be a closed Kahler manifold it follows from Hodge theory that $H^n_{dR}(M; \Bbb C) = \bigoplus_{p+q=n} H^{p,q}_{Dolbeault}(M)$
But this requires work and is again nothing to do with general principles
 
@MikeMiller Oh ok, I didn't know the details of this
Hence my confusion
 
Nobody should have told you that without telling you what it means :(
 
Many people have haha
 
There are far more things that people call cohomology than things satisfying the Eilenberg-Steenrod axioms
 
So homology of complex manifolds is "richer" than homology of topological manifolds
 
2:52 PM
It's unrelated
They measure different things
That there is a relationship at all is miraculous and what gives rise to the modern subject of Hodge theory
 
Cool, thanks !
 
3:29 PM
The Dolbeaut double complex filters the de Rham complex, it's a structure coming out of the complex structure - this is the best you can say
The double complex cohomology of del + delbar is de Rham, but how is it related to del and delbar cohomology? I guess is unclear
Mike's statement is saying if M is Kahler then the spectral sequence degenerates at E^2
 
Do you know JP Demailly's Complex Analytic and Differential Geometry ? Do you recommend it ? @MikeMiller
 
I know nothing, especially about complex geometry books
 
Seems very specialized to me. I dunno what your goal is
I've personally never heard Lelong numbers much less read 70 pages about them
 
I'm having a course that covers roughly the first chapter this week
 
3:36 PM
Yikes
Very scary
 
Sounds like an SCV course
 
Whoa wait
Pseudoconvexity
Great stuff!!
I will read
 
Tfw
 
It looks cool if you ask me
 
That's a scary looking book
 
3:48 PM
hi @BalarkaSen @MikeMiller
 
hi
 
Hi @Astyx
I want to discuss a theory I am developing with someone interested in algebraic geometry.
anyone wants to discuss
 
Hi; I've got nothing to contribute about that, sorry
 
it is a theory that would connect geometry and algebra
@MikeMiller fair.
@Astyx would you like to discuss ?
does Ted still come here ?
 
I'm not very knowledgeable in algebraic geometry
I doubt I could contribute anything useful
 
3:54 PM
I see.
@TedShifrin can you check my email in regards to a theory that in development by me.
@TedShifrin Thank you so much.
@MikeMiller how are you ? Are you a postdoc now ?
 
Isn't algebraic geometry precisely a theory that connects geometry and algebra?
 
Sure I mean I guess you could call Cohomological analysis
my theory
It would connect a lot of areas not just algebra and geometry.
but also analysis as well.
@TobiasKildetoft
 
Seems useful
 
@BalarkaSen very useful yeah.
I emailed Ted the main idea just want some critique towards it.
I am planning to publish it during my PhD.
 
Do you use higher category theory
 
4:02 PM
yes
@BalarkaSen can I email you the idea
 
I wouldn't understand it
 
I put it in layman's term
The main idea for people that don't know any higher categories
 
Oh but I'm just not familiar with much of algebraic geometry, or algebra or geometry for that matter. I think Ted will have useful feedback
Just cool to hear you used higher category theory in algebraic geometry to connected algebra and geometry
 
yeah and I will generalize K-theory and regulators and other stuff as a way to link different cohomologies generated by my theory and provide a way to measure perspective.
I call it cohomology of perspective
my theory.
 
I'm technically a postdoc, yeah. I'm not paying much attention now because I'm preparing some calculus lectures
 
4:07 PM
oh I see @MikeMiller very cool.
brb
 
4:48 PM
Hi Ted. "Sorry left my computer unattended"
 
4:58 PM
@MikeMiller What level?
 
Ted if you could reply back from email that would be nice :)
 
I just got it. Honestly, I know nothing about this stuff, so I cannot say anything useful.
 
@TedShifrin I see no problem :). I hope everything is ok with you.
 
Pandemics, fires, dangerous incompetent president ... yup, just fine.
 
yes that is why I asked :S
I hope things goes towards the better soon
 
5:10 PM
We all do ... :)
 
@Knight multivariable integration
 
Since above $y$ is transcendental over $F$, we have that $F(y)$ is isomorphic to $F(x)$. But, then again, in the above result we claim that $[F(x) : F(y)]$ may be greater than one! I am not able to digest this.
 
$[F(x) : F(x^2)] = 2$
 
If you don’t mind terribly I would like to have your lecture (whether it is video or PDF).
 
5:15 PM
Sure!
 
put $y = x^2$ in your query
 
Given a ring $(R,+,\cdot)$, let $(R^{op},+,\star)$ be the opposite ring formed from it. I am trying to show that $Hom_{R}(R,R) \cong R^{op}$ as rings. What are the ring operations on $Hom_{R}(R,R)$? Usual function addition and composition?
 
yes
note that the Hom is R-module Hom, i.e. R-linear maps
you can't add two ring homs together
 
You can't add two ring homomorphisms? Why can't I define $f + g$ as $(f+g)(r) := f(r)+g(r)$? Why doesn't that work?
 
of course you can add them, but the resulting map is usually not a ring hom anymore
 
5:25 PM
Oh, I am confused...so then what are the ring operations on $Hom_{R}(R,R)$?
 
I'd rather not share lectures with people not taking the class, sorry.
I'm certain that there are very polished lectures on the same material you can find elsewhere
 
@MikeMiller I understand the reason, there are chances of stealing, eh?
 
@LeakyNun Thanks :)
 
pointwise addition as addition and composition as multiplication @user193319
 
I shouldn’t have asked for it in first place, I never thought how corrupt someone might estimate me.
 
5:31 PM
It's not a matter of corruption, @Knight.
 
Is it about fees?
 
But there's an implicit contract with the students that this is a course for them, not to have their names and faces made public. When my lectures were videoed and put on YouTube, my students agreed to it.
 
There's nothing interesting enough to steal from a calculus lecture, I assure you
 
I've had sleepless nights wondering if people might steal my computation of gas mileage as an application of linear approximation for functions of two variables. :P
 
I would just want them to be much more polished were they to be for "public consumption". Part of Ted's implicit contract (to me!) is that I am in communication with students afterwards --- if something is confusing, I can clarify more or less immediately
Making something public extends that privilege to others; but I only get paid for answering some of those questions ;)
 
5:39 PM
You mean I get paid for answering questions? Who knew!
Oh, you do :D
 
For now, at least
 
academia destroyed not anymore mwahaha
 
Howdy, a @Balarka.
 
all the math you have learnt will be forgotten
4
im not shocked
@TedShifrin Hi!
 
This is sounding like Hippa's meme.
 
5:41 PM
:D
 
@TedShifrin kind of
 
You were here years ago for Hippa's meme?
Damn, that was something like 4 years ago.
 
Sure
I can't get if off my mind
 
Has to be at least 6 years
 
You don't remember me @TedShifrin :o
 
5:43 PM
Well, those videos were made spring 2014, so I suppose 6 years is barely possible.
 
Oh ok
I have been a member of MSE for 6 years and I feel like I have seen that meme at the very beginning
Time flies
 
6:03 PM
Hi all, I'm confused about the partial derivative of a cross product
I understand that $\frac{d}{d t}(\mathbf{u}(t) \times \mathbf{v}(t))=\mathbf{u}^{\prime}(t) \times \mathbf{v}(t)+\mathbf{u}(t) \times \mathbf{v}^{\prime}(t)$
I'm trying to use that to prove $v \times E = r \times \frac{\partial E}{\partial t}$
If anyone can help, that would be great
 
That's not a partial derivative --- partial derivatives are things you take of multivariable functions, and this is a 1-variable function (of t!)
You seem to be using facts from physics here that you're not telling us
What are r, v, E?
 
@MikeMiller Sorry, let me clarify: $E$ is the electric field of a charge. $v$ is the velocity of that charge, and $r$ is the position function
 
$E$ is always in the direction of $r$, so $r \times E = 0$
Use that plus the cross product rule you just wrote.
 
@BalarkaSen $r$ is the position of source particle
 
There's a sign error then
 
6:11 PM
@BalarkaSen OK, so here's what I have:
I know by the Cross Product rule that $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}{r \times E} = \frac{\partial r}{\partial t} \times E + \frac{\partial E}{\partial t} \times r$
 
@Knight The position of the source particle is the origin. $r$ is the position vector from the origin to the test charge, or the other way around - I don't keep track of sign.
 
@BalarkaSen particle is moving with $v$
 
What
 
@Knight That's right
 
How does that contradict what I said
 
6:13 PM
Simplifying, I have $\frac{\partial}{\partial t}{r \times E} = v \times E + \frac{\partial E}{\partial t} \times r$
 
@BalarkaSen You said particle is at the origin
 
@DarkRunner You swapped the order here on that second term... Should be r x E_t
 
Hello everyone i want to ask a question about composition series of finite groups. We usually construct a composition in a finite group by a sequence of maximal normal subgroups. Can we construct a composition series in a finite group by a sequence of maximal normal subgroups ?
 
@MikeMiller OK, got it
I think I messed up my $LaTeX$ by mistake
 
@ABHIJITBHATTACHARJEE so I am not the most accurate reader in general but I think you said the same thing twice, did you mean "minimal" the second time?
 
6:16 PM
Lol
Hi @Amin
 
Hi all! If I have a diffeomorphism $\phi$ and I'm only given its matrix representation $M$, how do I compute $\phi '$?
 
Also hey everyone, what's up!
 
Oh!! I should be minimal normal subgroup
 
The next question would be what is a minimal normal subgroup
 
If anyone can help, that would be great ...
 
6:18 PM
what is the matrix representation of a diffeomorphism?
 
Can we construct a composition in finite group by a sequence of minimal normal subgroup
 
So I think the answer is no Abhijit, the reason maximal normal subgroups work nicely is that if $N$ is normal in $G$, then normal subgroups between $N$ and $G$ correspond to subgroups $G/N$
 
@BalarkaSen Yes! Yes! You're right!
Thank you!
 
@DarkRunner Whew!
 
But normal subgroups of $N$ need not be normal in $G$
 
6:19 PM
I don't know physics, just to clarify.
 
Or wait hold on I might be BSing you lemme think for a bit
 
But Abhijit, what is a minimal normal subgroup of a group?
Would that be the trivial group?
 
I think he's saying among non-trivial groups
So $N$ is a minimal normal subgroup of $G$ if it's non-trivial and any proper subgroup of $N$ which is normal in $G$ is trivial
 
@BalarkaSen Whenever we use the term minimal or maximal, we always add the requirement that it be either non-trivial or proper depending on which one. But only if the context makes those uninteresting examples
 
OK that makes sense.
 
6:23 PM
So maximal abelian subgroup could be the entire group (since not all groups are abelian). But maximal normal cannot be the entire group
Minimal normal subgroups are characteristically simple, which basically classifies them for finite groups
 
We take a finite G if it is simple then we are done. If it is not simple we get a minimal normal subgroup. Now we take the quotient group by the minimal normal subgroup. If the quotient group is simple then we are done otherwise we take a minimal normal subgroup of that. We will repeat the process and at some point of time it will stop since G is finite.
 
Yeah okay so in a composition series you only need $H_i$ to be normal in $H_{i+1}$
 
@ABHIJITBHATTACHARJEE That will not produce a composition series on its own
 
Howdy, @Tobias, Demonark, skull.
 
6:28 PM
So in principle you can say, whenever a quotient isn't simple you can take an intermediate normal subgroup
 
Hi professor
 
If you want to take the minimal one, maximal one, etc. But as Tobias said you can't just take minimal then ignore what's happening underneath
 
Why that will not work ?
 
@TedShifrin Hi
Because a minimal normal subgroup need not be simple
 
The minimal normal subgroup of $G$ might not be simple. Now you can say, okay take a minimal normal subgroup in there, continue until you can't, repeat that whole process over and over
Hey Ted and Tobias!
 
6:30 PM
@Ramanewbie Hey, it didn't click until now. You are "little Hippa." :D Where have you been for years?
 
Normal subgroups are confusing
Nothing very normal about the notion
 
They should be called quotientable subgroups clearly
 
Agreed
That's perfect, I love it.
 
Group ideals
jk
 
ideals should be called quotientable subrngs
 
6:37 PM
Ugh
No
Ideals are much better than normal subgroups
 
really, they are all just kernels
 
Coalgebras are a terrible offender here. There are subcoalgebras, left coideals, right coideals and two sided coideals. You can't quotient by a subcoalgebra, you need a two sided coideal to take a quotient. By the way a two sided coideal is not the same as a left coideal which is also a right coideal
 
coquotient lmfao
 
Who came up with those names? It's terrible
 
you take the dual algebra, quotient by the ideal, then dualize
 
6:40 PM
Maximal normal subgroups in the group may not be simple as well but the quotient group formed by the maximal normal subgroup must be simple. For example in finite p group of order p^n any subgroup of order p^(n-1) is maximal normal. To construct a composition series in a finite group the most important part is to look for the quotient group
 
No when you dualize the second time you're not guaranteed to get a coalgebra in infinite dimension
 
Dual of a coalgebra is always an algebra, dual of an algebra is a coalgebra in finite dimension, but messed up in general
 
6:56 PM
Yo @astyx
 
Oh howdy
 
Happy day after your birthday!
 
long time no see !
Thank you !! :D
How are you ?
 
Been doing alright, how about you?
 
Good as well, I started my second year of master's last week, and so far thecourse have been very interresting
What are you doing these days ?
 
7:00 PM
Oh nice! Same except PhD lol
What kinds of stuff are you doing?
 
I had one week of differential geometry and this week I have complex analysis
What's your PhD about ?
 
So here it's a 5 year PhD, basically first 2 years are equivalent to a masters. So I'm still in background. General direction I'm going is number theory and harmonic analysis
 
oh spooky
I have done very little number theory
I'm hesitant to take one course this year
 
doit doit doit
 
The "issue" is I can take only two course per semester
And I'd like to do some algebraic geometry as well
 
7:09 PM
Ah gotcha
 
I don't know if it's reasonable to take additional courses, they said they calibrate the amount of work required so that two is plenty
 
That makes sense lol, immersion is probably good anyway
 
That's true as well
 
Almost as good as embedding
hehehe
 
Ok you can leave now
 
7:53 PM
How would you prove this?

$$N=\sum^\infty_{a=1}\sum^\infty_{b=1}\sum^\infty_{c=1}\mathrm{\frac{ab(3a+c)}{4^{a+b+c}(a+b)(b+c)(c+a)}}=\frac{1}{2}\sum^\infty_{a=1}\sum^\infty_{b=1}\sum^\infty_{c=1}\frac{1}{4^{a+b+c}}$$
 
8:03 PM
Sum throughout all the permutations of a, b, c
This gives $3\sum\sum\sum {1\over 4^{a+b+c}}$
Then divide by the number of such permutations to get the result
@Safdar
 
@Astyx you can do this because $a,b,c$ are independant of each other?
 
You can do this because a,b and c are mute variables
For a simpler example
$$2\sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{x\over x+y} = \sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{x\over x+y} +\sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{x\over x+y} = \sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{x\over x+y} + \sum_{y=1}^k\sum_{x=1}^k{y\over x+y} = \sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{x\over x+y} + \sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{y\over x+y} = \sum_{x=1}^k\sum_{y=1}^k{x+y\over x+y} = k$$
 
@Astyx so you are saying that $x, y$ are interchangable here.. Similarly in the above case, the same applies for $a,b,c$.. Have I understood you correctly?
 
kind of
interchangeable is not the word
 
@Astyx dummy variables?
 
8:11 PM
yep
 
@Astyx Thanks a lot.. I've been stuck for the past hour trying to solve this..
 
No problem
Whenever you have such a symmetry you should try to use it
 
8:49 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Why are you doing this coalgebra cocrap
 
Can anyone find a counterexample to this statement:
"If $a^b$ is transcendental then $b^a$ is also transcendental"
 
I can yeah
I'll leave it to you to find them though
 
yeah
 
9:05 PM
Ah I got one
$e^{\ln 2}$ and $(\ln 2)^e$
 
@MikeMiller that would interest me as well
 
oh wait do we know if $(\ln 2)^e$ is transcendental?
wolfram says no :(
@MikeMiller Now I am curious to what your counter-example is
 
If all the quadrants of $\Bbb R^2$ were superimposed would it be possible to write down a metric?
e^1 and 1^e
 
@geocalc33 lol
what if $a,b \ne 1$
 
try something with a square root instead of a logarithm
 
9:13 PM
hmm
ah
$2^{\sqrt{2}}$ and $\sqrt{2}^2$
 
ye
 
Alright what about this
"If $a^b$ is transcendental then $a+b$ is also transcendental"
 
same example still works
 
oh yeah I forgot $\sqrt{2}$ isn't transcendental
man that was embarassing
 
9:39 PM
@MikeMiller I'm not, but my girlfriend took a Hopf algebras course, and I came up with a few doubts as I was helping her with some of that stuff
 
9:59 PM
Poor lass
 
10:38 PM
Let $(M,f)$ and $(M,g)$ be global charts on a topological manifold $M$. Then are the unique smooth maximal atlases they generate equal?
 
are f and g equal?
 
no
not necessarily
 
Then no, you know counterexamples
Take M = R
 
Sounds like it's as simple as I thought. But since something has disappeared, here's the question again:
I am told that $\lim_{x \to 6} \frac{f(x)-15}{x-4} = 8$ and $\lim_{x \to 4}\frac{f(x)-15}{x-4} = 3$. I've easily determined that $\lim_{x \to 6} f(x) = 31$. How do I find the $\lim_{x \to 4} f(x)$?
(Once again, I can't reply to myself) But the right limit $-15/(x-4)$ as $x \to 4$ DNE because $\pm \infty$, therefore the whole limit DNE.
 
I answered this last night, @Jeff.
 
10:52 PM
@MikeMiller what if we include that $M$ and $M$ is diffeomorphic to itself wrt to the different unique smooth maximal atlases
 
@orientablesurface That's the case for M = R, because any two smooth structures are diffeomorphic on R.
The only answer you'll get is "iff fg^{-1} and gf^{-1} are smooth", which is almost tautological
 
(On the respective domains with the appropriate differentiable structure.)
 
I think these are defined as maps between Euclidean space with standard smooth structure, so I don't think one needs to worry about the parenthetical.
 
ahh I see, but if I include the condition that the union of two smooth atlases is a smooth atlas on the manifold, then they determine the same smooth structure
 
11:13 PM
Right --- and that's equivalent to the condition I gave above
 
11:50 PM
@AlessandroCodenotti Any mention of hopf algebras gives me flashbacks to the one time that I looked at Martin Hairer's recent articles on SPDE solutions. That sh*t is wild
Like, I am really unsure if I've ever seen mathematics like that
and this is the hopf algebra version link.springer.com/article/10.1007/s00222-018-0841-x#Equ7
 
@TedShifrin Yes, but it was kind of vague. I'm just confirming my understanding
 
@user2103480 ...
 

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