« first day (3628 days earlier)      last day (1386 days later) » 
00:00 - 18:0018:00 - 21:00

6:01 PM
That's actually how algebraic geometers write it lmao
Outrageous I know
 
Okay. since, G has covering space action on X and X is simply connected (its actually contractible), then X->X/G is the universal cover and pi_1(X/G) = G.
 
right and pi_n(X/G) = pi_n(X) = 0 by contractibility of X
for n > 1
 
yea. so X/G is a K(G,1) and X is an EG.
 
G-Eazy
 
okay man. I should sleep now.
 
6:04 PM
You want to hear a G-Eazy track before going to sleep?
It'll help with your EGeazies
 
fuck you... okay. make it quick
 
(btw nice owning of nLab junkie today. I liked it)
 
I'm sure he had something in mind I didn't understand
didn't really mean to own
 
A principal bundle is a guy with G-action so that locally the projection $P \to B = P/G$ is the trivial projection $U \times G \to U$
Stack of records theorem where the stack isn't discrete
 
6:08 PM
Mike just listen to GEazy
Oh shit he has a new track out
Let's see what he's done this time
 
I've internalized G's lessons
 
@BalarkaSen Great. feeling real pumped up. Will compute $E\text{Monster}$ tomorrow.
 
@feynhat U Noh Aye Meen Eet
 
@BalarkaSen Of course you didn't. I am just messing.
 
@MikeMiller did you ever say you're getting mahney?
 
6:10 PM
anyway later Bal, Mike...
 
cyup
please use my full name
 
Or just say "a" :D
 
That would be my full name, yes
god what the f did I just listen to
I will never get used to GEazy's top notch raps
 
6:34 PM
@BalarkaSen Thanks, I buy this argument modulo my knowledge gaps, it's nice. I think the difference is just whether one chooses to approach this problem from the side of Riemannian geometry or the side of GMT. The area formula is fundamental in GMT and applies very naturally in this setup, so even though it's stronger, I don't think it's inappropriate to call upon it here. Your argument seems great from a differential-geometric viewpoint, as far as I can tell. Also no worries, no offence was taken
@feynhat 1v1 me on Dust $(\infty,2)$
 
@Thorgott I'm open to listening whenever you're free and want to tell me about the coarea formula, I don't really know it.
 
it's the area formula, not the coarea formula, in this case
 
I don't know either haha
 
they're dual in some sense, but neither is a direct consequence of the other, I think
for full disclosure, I haven't read a proof of them yet either
 
I don't even know the statements but if you want to read and teach me the proof as well that'd be fantastic
Not today but whenever time permits that is
 
6:50 PM
The basic idea should go something like this: When you have $k$ ($k\le n$) vectors $v_1,...,v_k$ in $\mathbb{R}^n$, you can arrange them into an $n\times k$-matrix $V$. They span a parallelepiped, which has $k$-dimensional volume $\sqrt{\det(V^tV)}$. Assume you have a map $f\colon U\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^n$, where $U\subseteq\mathbb{R}^k$ is open that is sufficiently differentiable (GMT likes to work with Lipschitz maps, which implies differentiable a.e. and that will suffice). Then you can form the Gramian determinant $J_kf=\sqrt{\det(J_f^tJ_f)}$ pointwise. If $M$ is a smooth manifold and $
Skimming over the chapter about this in Krantz&Parks, the proof actually isn't too different (structurally) from proving the change-of-variables theorem.
The coarea formula is a similar statement when $k\ge n$ and then the Hausdorff measure in codimension appears
I'll try actually working through the proof once my exams are done and if I manage, I can tell you about it
 
7:05 PM
I'll make the codimension $1$ example I'm alluding to explicit: Say $M\subset\mathbb{R}^n$ is a codimension $1$ submanifold with unit normal field $\nu$ and $A\subset M$ is measurable. Consider $A_r=\{p+t\nu(p)\colon p\in A,-r<t<r\}$ (that is, $A$ thickened up in normal direction). I'm not gonna pay attention to the technical details in the forthcoming btw. Assume you have a local parametrization $\psi\colon U\rightarrow V\cap M$, whose image contains $A$ and consider $B=\psi^{-1}(A)$. We form the map $\tau\colon B\times\mathbb{R}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}^n,\,(x,t)\mapsto\psi(x)+t\nu(\psi(x))$.
 
7:57 PM
Language vs mathematics:
Theorem:
$$0>\infty$$
Proof:
$0$ means that there is something and that something is nothing,
and we know that nothing is greater than infinity.
Therefore: $$0>\infty$$.
 
8:21 PM
Hiii anyone onlind
 
00:00 - 18:0018:00 - 21:00

« first day (3628 days earlier)      last day (1386 days later) »