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00:02
Hmm nevermind, I guess it might end up being more complex.
if I have a function R^n->R^m that is totally differentiable at a point and partially differentiable in a neighborhood of that point, can the partial derivatives be discontinuous at that point?
this ought to be possible, but I've always been bad with these multivariate counter-examples
00:57
What functors do I need to show that the canonical injection between $X_i\rightarrow \coprod_iX_i$ is natural onto the image in the disjoint union in $\textbf{SET}$? $id_{\textbf{SET}}$ and what else?
I was able to construct a commutative diagram which shows that the canonical injection could be a natural isomorphism
but I feel like I shouldn't even consider $\textbf{SET}$, but rather a subcategory, perhaps?
well, category theory gives you a lot of freedom in how you can phrase things, so there's many way to go about this
you could, for example, note that the inclusions in the $j$-th coordinate $X_j\hookrightarrow\coprod_iX_i$ give a natural transformation between the "projection on the $j$-the coordinate" and "taking disjoint union" functors from $\mathbf{Set}^I$ to $\mathbf{Set}$
perhaps the category consisting of the objects $\{$ $X_i$ : $i\in I$ $\}$ $\cup$ $\{$ $X_i^*$ $:$ $i\in I$ $\}$ ? where $X_i^*$ denotes the image?
if you really only care about the image, then this comes down to saying that the identity functor on $\mathbf{Set}$ is naturally isomorphic to the "taking the cartesian product with $\{j\}$" functor, which is even more tautological
what's $\textbf{Set}^I$? @Thorgott
the $I$-th power of $\mathbf{Set}$
the objects are tuples $(X_i)_{i\in I}$ where each $X_i$ is a set and the morphisms $(X_i)_{i\in I}\rightarrow(Y_i)_{i\in I}$ are tuples $(f_i)_{i\in I}$ where $f_i\colon X_i\rightarrow Y_i$ is a map
01:11
ahh okay
the projection on the $j$-th coordinate functor takes $(X_i)_{i\in I}$ to $X_j$ and $(X_i)_{i\in I}\stackrel{(f_i)_{i\in I}}{\longrightarrow}(Y_i)_{i\in I}$ to $f_j\colon X_j\rightarrow Y_j$ (unsurprisingly)
the disjoint union functor takes $(X_i)_{i\in I}$ to $\coprod_{i\in I}X_i$ and $(X_i)_{i\in I}\stackrel{(f_i)_{i\in I}}{\longrightarrow}(Y_i)_{i\in I}$ to the map $f\colon\coprod_iX_i\rightarrow\coprod_iY_i$ that acts like $f_i$ on $X_i$ (which exists by the universal property of coproducts)
once those definitions are unraveled, my above remark translates into a rather uninteresting tautology
01:59
@TedShifrin back from walking the dogs. I see you're no longer here.
02:27
Hi, could anyone please tell me what is the highest order of infinity?
Huh. So the Sobolev lemma states that if $f \in H^s(\Bbb R)$ and $s > k + 1/2$ then there is some $\phi \in C^k(\Bbb R)$ such that $f = \phi$ almost everywhere
02:57
@rob John morning sir
 
3 hours later…
05:30
@Thorgott double cosets are made up
@Yuvraj It is somewhere ;-p
Howdy @Edward, and re @robjohn
Hullo @Ted
hello once more, @Ted
Heya @Fargle
05:45
how's it going
re @Alekos
Pig
Pig
hi all
rarely so many people :o
yo Piggy
Pig
Pig
hey ted
finishing up preparing something for tmrw lol
about to sleep
figured I'd see what was going on in here
05:47
mostly I'm just being stir-crazy and wondering what textbook I should delve back into
Pig
Pig
@AlekosRobotis what did you prepare?
a talk or something?
yeah, I'm telling a friend of mine a few things about hodge theory tomorrow
we're doing a little reading course together
Pig
Pig
oh wow nice
are you going the analytic route or algebraic route?
mmm more algebraic, but it seems I might actually need to learn the analysis eventually if I want to do more with this topic
Pig
Pig
nic nice
05:56
I've been using it more as an excuse to learn some complex AG
Pig
Pig
i'm actually curious how complex geometry and algebraic geometry are different these days
i suppose working over C gives you more tools, but i don't really know what concrete problems/areas where you can say much more in complex AG than "general" AG
some people definitely care about arithmetic things
and I guess the tools become quite different, but I don't know much about that
Pig
Pig
yea i'm curious too
@robjohn AT LEAST AT MY YARD
sir have you noticed my post yesterday?
@TedShifrin Hey there. I'm fixing an answer I wrote a long time ago, but someone just pointed out that I misread the question.
@Yuvraj It is an hour to midnight here. I think I may have to rethink whether the Earth is flat...
06:07
lol
i am in doubt whether p would be an exact integer?
@Yuvraj yes, why post that microscopic text in a large blank page, and then post it again? No, $p\approx1.110720735$, but that was a numerical search. I didn't know an exact solution right off.
sorry sir actually question was in the phone so i posted it as it is
@Yuvraj ah... Let me show a better way to repost something like that.
@Yuvraj that will go to the previous post without a large image here.
You can also ask:
$\textbf{P55.}$ Find the smallest positive number $p$ for which the equation $\cos(p\sin x)=\sin(p\cos x)$ has a solution for $x\in[0,2\pi]$.
06:25
@robjohn right sir but that time i was on phone(in my phone mathjax do not work,so i am habitual of posting picture).
till the time i am on my phone!
yes, but what I showed above links to the previous question in the transcript so that it doesn't need to be posted twice.
right before you said "i am in doubt whether p would be an exact integer?"
yes sir
Just a suggestion to keep the clutter down
but do you think there is an exact solution? I got a numerical one above.
it could be
because actually in last it is scaler which makes the equality feasible.
$p=1.1107207345395$ is about as close as I can get
That is very close to $\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$.
as in all digits match
And it seems that $x=\frac\pi4$
So I don't have a proof yet, but $p=\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$ and $x=\frac\pi4$ might be the answer.
where $\sin(x)=\cos(x)=\frac1{\sqrt2}$
and $p\sin(x)=p\cos(x)=\frac\pi4=x$
I am sure that is the solution.
07:05
If you look at that image, you can see that when the curves first touch, the derivatives are equal at the points where the curves touch. When the curves intersect more steeply, the derivatives do not match.
@Yuvraj: so checking out $p=\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$ and $x=\frac\pi4$, we see that those conditions are met.
so that is the solution
yes i got it sir
but still, I have to search out the analytical solution for this
@Yuvraj Why? For $p\lt\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$, the curves don't intersect. For $p\gt\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$ they do intersect. They are tangent for $p=\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$.
is this for a class?
no sir you are correct.
actually i have solved this question analytically can you check?
@robjohn
actually, you are correct we do not much analytical solution now because graph clear almost everything.
07:35
@Yuvraj where?
@robjohn in my copy
actually i just too the inverse of the function and wrote $sinx=cos(\pi/2-x)$
and then $p(sinx+cosx)=2n\pi+pi/2$
then $\sqrt 2 psin(x+\pi/4)=2n\pi+\pi/2$
minimum of rhs will be at $x=\pi/2$ value
56 mins ago, by robjohn
and $p\sin(x)=p\cos(x)=\frac\pi4=x$
@Yuvraj that was where the graphs first touch.
yes
07:51
The equation is equivalent to $\frac\pi{2p}=\sin(x)+\cos(x)=\sqrt2\sin\left(x+\frac\pi4\right)$
so the smallest that $p$ can be is $\frac\pi{2\sqrt2}$
because $\sin\left(x+\frac\pi4\right)\le1$
 
1 hour later…
09:16
Anyone capable of posting an example of uncountable subset of a topological space with countable base?

Can't imagine how it is possible.
09:39
@flowian $\Bbb R$ has countable base, and $[0,1]$ is an uncountable proper subset
(you can take open intervals which have rational endpoints as a countable base for the standard topology on $\Bbb R$, because you can make intervals which have irrational endpoints as arbitrary unions by doing limiting stuff; e.g. $(e,\pi)$ can be exhibited as the union of $(2.8,3)$, $(2.72, 3.1)$, $(2.719, 3.14)$, ...)
It's somewhat analogous to $\mathbb{N}$ being countable, but $\mathcal{P}(\mathbb{N})$ being uncountable. You may only have countably many sets in the base, but you can still be able to exhibit uncountably many open sets by taking unions of these sets in the base. So it's not all too surprising there are uncountable spaces (or rather, spaces with uncountably many open sets, the other case is trivial) with a countable base.
yep---as it turns out, the fact that you're allowed arbitrary unions can do quite a lot of heavy lifting
you can also do this trick with any $\Bbb R^n$, taking as basis all rectangles $(a_1, b_1) \times \cdots \times (a_n, b_n)$ with the $a_i, b_i$ all rational
09:56
on the other hand, you of course also get that a space with a countable basis definitely has at most continuum many open sets, so there're limitations
I think this also forces the space itself to have cardinality at most continuum if you additionally assume some separation axiom
that sounds right
I think Hausdorff might be enough, but that also might be overkill
$T_1$ is enough, according to Wikipedia
okay yeah I buy that
I always forget which separation axiom is which
Should a transitive Relation contain at least one example of transitive? Or if a relation does not have any counter example of transitive property, can it be considered to be transitive?
if you never have a situation where $a \sim b$ and $b \sim c$ whatsoever, the relation is automatically transitive
10:01
I guess the way to prove this is by injecting the space into its topology by picking a suitable neighborhood of each point, but how do I do this
oh wait, using closed sets instead of open sets
$T_1$ implies singletons are closed
in other words, all you need is that no counterexample exists---i.e. you can't have $a \sim b$ and $b \sim c$ but $a \not\sim c$
Example : R = {(1,1),(2,2)} is it transitive? X={1,2} @Fargle
Okay. I got it
Can this be generalized for mathematical statements?
well, here, there are situations where it comes up, they're just not particularly obvious or interesting---
1 is related to 1, and 1 is related to 1, so therefore...
more generally, if $(X,\tau)$ is a top space and $T_1$, then $|\tau|\ge|X|$
but yes, in general, if you're given a property that says "if P then Q", and P is never true, then the property is automatically satisfied
this is known as being "vacuously true"
10:05
it's good to have observed that, I guess
for example: the empty relation (nothing is related to anything) is always automatically transitive
Okay. Thanks a lot
no problem :)
Yes. Although I should have chosen R={(1,2),(3,4)}, X={1,2,3,4} as the example to make it more obvious. But I got your point
10:22
@Fargle "..you can make intervals which have irrational endpoints as arbitrary unions by doing limiting stuff; e.g. $(e,\pi)$ can be exhibited as the union of $(2.8,3)$, $(2.72, 3.1)$, $(2.719, 3.14)$, ...)"

In this example (2.8,3) is countable if (2.8, 3) is set of numbers 2.8, 3 and natural numbers. Is that what you meant?
I mean interval of numbers
10:59
I asked this question in the chat two times yesterday, because of lack of an answer, posted it as a question: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3720479/… - It's about simplicial sets
11:29
I edited this question, but the image link which I inserted is not working. Can anyone please have a look at it and tell me what's wrong.
12:19
am I right with the assumption that $sin(\frac{1}{x}) \leq \frac{1}{x}$ for $x \geq 1$ ? And that one should be able to show that via the series of sin?
okay maybe easier just to show sin(x) <= x for x non negative
ABC
ABC
12:59
I know that the evolution of a dynamic system can be written as:
$\frac{d(x(t))}{dt} = f[x(t),u(t)]$
$y(t) = h[x(t),u(t)]$
$x(0) = x_0$


In the discrete case we have:
$x(k+1) = f[x(k),u(k)]$
$y(k) = h[x(k),u(k)]$
$x(0) = x_0$

Why the condition $\frac{d( x(t) )}{dt} = f[x(t),u(t)]$ is "translated" in the discrete case in $x(k+1) = f[x(k),u(k)]$?

How derivate is linked to "x(k+1)"??

Thanks a lot in advance!
P.S.

(typing error)
[How The Derivative is linked ... ]**
user434058
@Yuvraj $x=-1,0,8$. Just make two cases, one where the exponent is $0$, other where the base is $1$.
user434058
Nvm, you solved it...
13:33
@FakeMod?????
 
2 hours later…
15:07
Let $\mathscr A$ be open cover of a subset $A$ of topological space $X$ with countable base $\mathscr B$.

Is subcover of $A$ minimal cover in that space?
How does it differ from regular cover other than being a subset of it?
 
1 hour later…
16:35
Hello.
@Yuvraj: you good with the sin-cos-p problem? The solution is actually pretty simple.
@rob John yes sir
Only because of you I was able to understand graphical approach through this
@Yuvraj It can be done without the graphics, too.
Yes sir?
Aa we did that.
okay.
16:41
Sir I created a room can join it for a second?
@robjohn
17:02
I have solutions to the exercises, but don't want to look at them until I think have worked it out. I'm looking at this one:

Let $X=A\cup_f D^n$ be the space obtained by attaching an $n$-cell to $A$ and let $i:A\to X$ be the inclusion map. Using Van Kampen's theorem, prove that the induced map $i_*:\pi_1(A)\to \pi_1(X)$ is an isomorphism if $n\geq 3$
I can believe this claim, but what confuses me a little is thinking of $A$ non-path connected. So if I am gluing in an $n$-cell for $n>1$, then the attaching map has image in a single connected component.
Where for $1$-cells, I can have each end landing in a different path component.
Anyway, my first thought would be to take $A, D^n$ as the open subsets, but $A$ isn't necessarily path-connected (so this doesn't meet the criteria for Van Kampen). But path-components aren't necessarily open, so I can't just break $A$ up into path components $A_\alpha$, and say that $X=\left(\bigsqcup_{\alpha} A_\alpha\right) \bigsqcup (A_\gamma\bigcup_f D^n)$,
"An infinite total order does not have an upperbound" is it correct?
@MadhuchhandaMandal no, $[0,1]$ is an infinite totally ordered set with both an upper and a lower bound (under the standard order on the real numbers)
uh.. Thanks.
It is funny how I assumed otherwise and thought I found a weaker condition than Zorn's Lemma.
17:21
Greetings, demonic @Alessandro.
Hey @TedShifrin, I'm the guy you were helping with the euler characteristic thing a few days ago :D.
oh, Euler characteristic of spheres :)
Yes that mistake :')
LOL, we all make mistakes.
17:25
I'm trying to solve this one:
22 mins ago, by user574847
I have solutions to the exercises, but don't want to look at them until I think have worked it out. I'm looking at this one:

Let $X=A\cup_f D^n$ be the space obtained by attaching an $n$-cell to $A$ and let $i:A\to X$ be the inclusion map. Using Van Kampen's theorem, prove that the induced map $i_*:\pi_1(A)\to \pi_1(X)$ is an isomorphism if $n\geq 3$
I can do it for $A$ path connected
I think one only talks about $\pi_1$ for path-connected spaces. You can't have any based loops in the components separate from the base point.
That's true, although I thought they meant $\pi_1(A,x)\to \pi_1(X,i(x))$ is an isomorphism
For any $x$
Which should still be true
But you can only attach $X$ to one component of $A$, so this seems silly.
Can only attach $D^n$ to one component of $A$?
Isn't $\partial D^n$ connected?
17:30
Yeah, it's true that for $n>1$ you can only attach the $S^{n-1}$ to one component
It was the specifically wanting me to use Van Kampen that was throwing me off though, even though it seems like a silly addition to the problem
When Hatcher writes $\pi_1(X)$ he surely assumes path-connected. Otherwise, this is not well-defined.
Why not?
Take the disjoint union of a circle and a sphere.
Oh, I do see what you mean
And Hatcher specifies (at least in problem 6) that the subspace is path-connected.
17:34
But what I meant was, maybe the question should be reworded as:

Let $X=A\cup_f D^n$ be the space obtained by attaching an $n$-cell to $A$ and let $i:A\to X$ be the inclusion map. Using VK, prove that the induces map $i_*:\pi_1(A,x)\to\pi_1(X,i(x))$ is an isomorphism
I don't think it's worth spending more time on this.
18:20
hey chat!
I have a question about geometry. What does $[a:b:0] \subset \mathbb{P}_2(\mathbb{R})$ look like?
What do you think?
a line?
actually a line and a point
$[a:b:0] = [a':1:0]$ if $b\ne 0$ and $[a:b:0] = [1:0:0]$ if $b = 0$
@LucasHenrique Or better it looks like $\Bbb P^1(\Bbb R)$
this looks weird for me
I was looking at the two affine plane curves $f(x,y) = x-y$ and $g(x,y) = x-y-1$. obviously the two lines do not intersect
but if you look at ${}^h f,\ {}^h g$, they intercept exactly at $[a:b:0]$
i was expecting them to intercept in a single projective point
(i don't know if the word "intercept" actually exists in English)
18:37
In the first "subtraction" calculation here (math.stackexchange.com/questions/1098212/…), why is the final term $2P(A)P(B)$ instead of $2P(A \cap B)$? These don't seem to be the same.
that's precisely what it means for the events to be independent
Oh, right, missed that part.
ty
@LucasHenrique I don't know your notation. By the curve $f$ you mean $f=0$, I presume? Be careful! ... At any rate, the two projective lines intersect at a unique point at infinity, namely the point $[1,-1,0]$. Parallel lines all meet at the unique point at infinity representing their common slope. Understand why.
I have no idea how you're getting their intersection to be the entire projective line at infinity.
18:52
oh, obviously.
i forgot the part $f(x,y) = g(x,y) \mathbf{= 0}$
@TedShifrin my professor defines an algebraic affine curve as a principal ideal in $k[x,y]$ (we're studying the very beginning of algebraic geometry), possibly interchanging $f$, $\langle f \rangle$ and $Z(f) := \{(x,y) \in k^2:\ f(x,y) = 0\}$
When you do projective geometry it's a bit different, but OK.
Your $g$ is not homogeneous, so you have to homogenize. I guess that's what that silly $h$ is .
19:45
math.stackexchange.com/questions/3720479/… This question is about simplicial sets and got very minimal attraction.
 
2 hours later…
21:41
So $\Bbb RP^n$ is a CW-complex given by a single $i$-cell for each $0\leq i\leq n$, where at each step $X^i=\Bbb RP^{i}$ and our attaching map $\varphi_i:S^{i-1}\to \Bbb RP^{i-1}$ is the quotient under $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$-action
Where in particular the attaching map for the $2$-cell $\varphi_2:S^1\to \Bbb RP^1$ we can see this as attaching the $2$-cell to the circle, so that we obtain a hemi-sphere, whose boundary circle has antipodal points identified. Where this boundary is our copy of $\Bbb RP^1$, and in particular the attaching map $\varphi_2$ takes the circle to twice the generating loop in $\pi_1(\Bbb RP^1)\cong \pi_1(S^1)$,

So it seems in particular, that the induced map from the inclusion of $\Bbb RP^1$ into $\Bbb RP^2$, on the fundamental groups is $\Bbb Z\stackrel2\to \Bbb Z$
@KonformistLiberal one can always place a bounty on a question to get more attention.
@ContractibleDucky $\pi_1(\Bbb{RP}^2)$ is not $\Bbb Z$.
Damn, it told me I had 10 seconds to finish editing, so I panic finished it
Lol sorry
Yeah I meant to say that the induced map is the quotient map $\Bbb Z \to \Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$
21:47
Yeah that's right
Okay good :D
I was rush interpreting Proposition 1.26, p50 in Hatcher
That proposition also tells me that when attaching the higher cells, it does nothing to the fundamental group, so in particular $\pi_1(\Bbb RP^i)\cong \Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$ for $i>1$
That's the one which computes $\pi_1$ of a cell complex using SvKT?
@ContractibleDucky Correct.
@BalarkaSen yep
Nailed it
Thanks :D
and goodwork nailing it
21:54
How do I show that { (x, x) | x in R } is meagre?
I know it must be
But it won't come to me
Oh, I suppose I've had this thought before
It's clearly nowhere dense
Thanks guys
22:11
@robjohn I will place a bounty as soon as eligible, but I would really like someone with an idea to have a short look at it as soon as possible, because 1) it's a very minor question 2) it's very important to me
For a reminder to the chat, the question is about simplicial sets: math.stackexchange.com/questions/3720479/…
22:27
A comment: a lot of people might not have access to the book you are asking about, and so they can't answer.
 
1 hour later…
23:52
I am back

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