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04:00
@PeterTamaroff Nope!
@KannappanSampath What does it unify?
@KannappanSampath Whoooops!
number theory and representation theory and galois theory ...
all that good stuff
@PeterTamaroff Geometry, Number Theory, Algebra, Analysis -- but have I not said everything?
@KannappanSampath WOW
@anon I used that $10^{3^n}-1=\left(10^{3^{n-1}}-1\right)\left(10^{2\cdot3^{n-1}}+10^{3^{n-1}}+1\right)$
04:01
Let A_1, A_2, ... , A_n and B be well-formed formula of propositional calculus. If B is a deduction from A_1, A_2, ... , A_n, then A_n is a deduction from A_1, A_2, ... , A_n-1 implies B.
@anon Could you try and explain what it is about? Or is it too complicated?
@robjohn Basically the same thing, because the factor on the right is $\Phi_{3^{n-1}}(10)$.
@anon and that $\left(10^{2\cdot3^{n-1}}+10^{3^{n-1}}+1\right)\equiv0\pmod{3}$
@PeterTamaroff It's too complicated.
How do I prove that?
04:03
@anon Do you understand it?
no
But, yeah, there are nice expository articles on my to-read list.
Isn't that just a rule of how deductions work? I'm not sure.
It's a so-called metatheorem
It's different from a normal theorem
So I'm not sure how to prove a metatheorem
@anon Noted. Will go through. Thanks for telling me that.
04:06
:5439350 putty.exe - it turns your computer into a lump of clay?
hey, it's not my ftp. I can't vouch for strange .exe's...
@anon People should remember to have protection on hand when they go in strange places, anyway...
I hear putty is something like torrent business.
putty is ssh for windows
interesting
04:10
@Eugene like $\text{pu}\textbf{tty}$
@HenryT.Horton I'm looking at that now
yup
@anon Is it just me or there are lot of German titles (as compared to English titles)?
I assume you're thinking about $[0,2\pi)$ as a subset of $\mathbb R$ with the Euclidean metric.
04:11
are you all talking about something else though?
I haven't browsed that much.
one of my students call erdos the jesus of math recently
irked me a little
@Eugene how so?
@HenryT.Horton Let $(x,y) \in S^1$, say $x=(\sin \theta,\cos\theta)$ and $y=(\sin \alpha, \cos\alpha)$. Then $d_S(x,y)=2\left|\sin \left(\frac{\theta+\alpha}{2}\right)\right|$
Because he was itinerant?
04:13
@J.M. he said it's because he spread math to the world.
as in gave a bunch of public lectures and stuff
A bit of a stretch, though. I see churches a lot, but not that many math groups...
Now the inverse of $f$ should be $g:S^1\to [0,2\pi)$ such that $g((\sin \theta,\cos \theta))=\arccos \theta$?
@HenryT.Horton Why is it not continuous in in the Euclidean metric?
inverse trig function of an angle?
@anon What are you asking?
The inverse maps $(\cos t, \sin t)$ to $t$...
Look at the point $(1,0) \in S^1$
04:17
wooooosh
What does the inverse map a neighborhood of $(1,0) \in S^1$ to?
@HenryT.Horton Right. It tears it apart in some sense,
it's actually been linked in chat a number of times already
@HenryT.Horton Yes, stupid of my part.
@anon Oh, OK. My bad. :(
04:19
So that's not continuous, you map some things real close to $(1,0)$ to points nearly $2\pi$ apart
@HenryT.Horton Interesting example. Thanks!
gluing two ends of a string together is continuous, cutting a string is not
String theory
If the codomain of a continuous bijection is $\mathbb{R}$, then it is monotone, that order property need not hold or make sense for other codomains.
@HenryT.Horton I'm given in the text that a circle of radius $1$ is topologically equivalent to a circle of radius $2$. That is proven by a map $x\mapsto x/2$, right? (Like just shrinking one into the other, and inversely)
However, it claims they are not metrically equivalent.
That is, the distances aren't preserved through the tranformation.,
04:23
$x \mapsto x/2$ turns it into an ellipse
Shrinks the $x$-dimension but not the $y$
he might be talking about $x$ as a vector in R^2
@HenryT.Horton I meant $x$ as an ordered pair. Like ${\bf x}=(x,y)$
Yeah right!
@anon Yes, thanks.
user19161
@anon Strange that you use dollars around x but not around R2.
2
04:25
@JasperLoy He's too lazy to code \Bbb R^2
@JasperLoy I began typing with discipline, but lost it very quickly
Then you would want $\mathbf{x} \mapsto \mathbf{x}/\sqrt{2}$
If I did my arithmetic correctly, which is rare
@HenryT.Horton Right. I'm sloppy today.
Wait, what?
@HenryT.Horton I guess, this is not that rare situation! Sadly, you were wrong. Peter was right.
04:26
@HenryT.Horton Just that the book says radius $4$ I think, sorry. I miswrote that.
Anyways.
To map the circle of radius $r$ to the circle of radius $1$ centered around the origin, we need ${\bf x}\mapsto{\bf x}/r$.
sqrt(2) is when a square gets involved
aaaaaahhhhhhhhhhhhhh
or if you're talking about scaling area
$x^2 + y^2 = r^2$, not $x^2 + y^2 = r$
@HenryT.Horton BUUUUUUUUUUUUURN!
04:28
@anon Right. The equation of a circle $\|\bf{x}\|=r$
I'm crying
@HenryT.Horton Oh, noes.
I'm crying too, but for a different reason.
What happened @anon?
I wish anon had called himself by his name. :(
04:29
I'm saying it's so funny I'm cryi.. you get the idea.
Listen guys I just do theoretical stuff, none of these concrete calculations!!!
Today I saw those facebook pollings with something like $7-3\times 0+1=?$. A guy answered wrongly and another was spelling the correct answer step by step. I thought to myself: "Blah, why do you even bother about that." Maybe I should.
@HenryT.Horton ¿"Know that feel, bro"?
user19161
@HenryT.Horton Theoretical stuff actually involves many concrete calculations.
@PeterTamaroff He's following the footsteps of the great Grothendieck. ;)
@J.M. no-example-kind.
user19161
04:32
@PeterTamaroff Even if you change your username I can identify you using the inverted question mark!
@PeterTamaroff Just link them to the math.SE thread... >:) Gerry's answer, I suppose.
@JasperLoy ¡I'm marked!
I also have the "eñe" =D
user19161
@PeterTamaroff That rhymes with I'm fuqed!
@anon Have some interesting questions?
(say in representation theory?)
user19161
@KannappanSampath You lack exercises?
04:36
I'm studying group theory offhand. Do you mean like, research-esque questions, or textbook-esque questions?
I have an interesting one about trees and commutator subgroups.
@JasperLoy Not really. But looking for research-esque questions as @anon puts it.
@anon Please state it for me.
user19161
@KannappanSampath You seriously thinking of research as a freshman?
@JasperLoy Well, I always liked trying my hand at technically hard things.
(I have been successful at times; sometimes I don't go anywhere.)
user19161
@KannappanSampath I just feel that you should study more topics first before plunging yourself into it. But others may disagree.
k. In the same way that trees correspond to ways to fully parenthesize strings, we can use them to designate iterated commutators, like [[G,[G,G]],G]. Call it [G;T] for a given tree T. Then for what trees T and S is [G;T] a subgroup of [G;S] for all groups G? This vastly generalizes the lower central series embedding into the derived series.
For appropriately loose interpretation of "embedding."
04:41
@anon Hmm, I get the embedding part. And, it is very interesting.
I should review many things before attempting this.
On the same tack: we can use ordinal numbers to extend group series out beyond infinity via transfinite induction. I wonder if there's a good way to describe transfinite extension of these tree things.
Did you formulate the question yourself?
@HenryT.Horton Hey
I also had one inspired by percolation theory, about viewing inverse limits with random group theory by viewing the indexing set as something to percolate in that I mentioned to Eugene.
@KannappanSampath Yes.
@anon I know no percolation theory. :(
04:45
@KannappanSampath my knowledge of percolation theory is about equivalent to the AMS article I read on it
just the basic idea of percolation, wherein certain group extensions are activated with some probability, and then studying the limiting probability that the inverse limit has so-and-so properties.
@PeterTamaroff Hello, Peter, how are you doing, today,
@HenryT.Horton I was going to write something about that $1$-sphere thing.
Here in the states, we just call it a "circle"
Give me a sec
@HenryT.Horton I know that $f$ is continuous iff for every neighborhood $M$ of $f(a)$ there exists a neighborhood $N$ of $a$ such that $f(N) \subset M$.
I want to use that to prove the inverse is not continuous.
Also, I wanted to ask if you know some place where (most)all properties about character table or those properties of group that can be read off from there. @anon
04:49
I've only studied rep thry a little, but what's up?
I mean, obviously, conjugacy classes.
@anon Well, there are more trickier ones I know of (and is standard). I am sure there are many more hear-say things. :(
@MarianoSuárez-Alvarez May be you have some input here?
@PeterTamaroff Take a neighborhood of $0 \in [0, 2\pi)$ and a neighborhood of $(1,0) \in S^1$
you can derive character tables for tensor / symmetric / alternating powers of a rep from the rep's original char table
via theory of symmetric polynomials essentially
@anon I see. I am not aware of this. I'll read this up.
????
A neighborhood of $0 \in [0, 2\pi)$ is of the form $[0, \varepsilon)$
04:55
@HenryT.Horton Sorry, I was thinking about $0$ in $\Bbb R$. My bad.
@KannappanSampath here's a starting point
@HenryT.Horton And a nbhd of $(1,0)$ in the $1$-sphere is an arc, right? But going both ways.
well, contains an arc
Yeah mang
@anon reading Thank you.
04:58
@anon But now I'm considering the metric space $(S^1,d_s)$ where $d_s$ is the restriction of the Euclidean metric to $S^1\times S^1$. Thus the nbhd is an arc.
@HenryT.Horton Who are you answering to?
a nbhd can be more than just an open ball
a nbhd of x is just any set containing an open set containing x
@anon I'm in metric spaces now. Open sets are defined via nbhds which are defined via open balls.
lame
You hear that Peter? anon thinks your balls are lame
@anon Come at me, bro.
@HenryT.Horton But srsly now. The image of $[0,\epsilon)$ under $f$ is the arc starting and containing $(0,1)$ and running clockwise.
Oh, you want to prove continuity of the forward map before proving the inverse is not continuous?
What makes induction more difficult to understand than, say, contradiction?
Dread, you're right!
I was looking it the other way around.
05:08
Can one search through one's favorites list in a specific tag category? I have 14 pages of them..
aha! @KannappanSampath here is an appropriate generalization
@PeterTamaroff Well Peter? are you ready to stop losing and start winning?
@HenryT.Horton What do you mean? I feel like I'm winning ¬¬
(Whatever "winning" means)
@anon Nice. I am still engrossed in symmetric poly.
@PeterTamaroff Did you finish the problem then?
05:16
@HenryT.Horton Yes, I'm just writing it out.
Oh ok
I will go home in a moment then
@HenryT.Horton You're in your office?
05:32
@HenryT.Horton Can I say $g$ "tears" $S^1$ at $(1,0)$?
Or that $S^1$ is closed but $[0,2\pi)$ is not!
@PeterTamaroff what are you doing now?
@BenjaLim Drawing the cutest pictures of $S^1$.
serious.
He's polishing my trophies
Get back to work, slave
05:34
@BenjaLim Supah-serious.
@HenryT.Horton Damn, I misread the "halls" as "balls"...
no what are you trying to do with $S^1$
@BenjaLim I swear I didn't touch her, I swear!
I'm in no mood for jokes
@BenjaLim OK.
@BenjaLim Why?
05:35
Don't worry.
What are you trying to prove now?
He's making a circular argument.
@BenjaLim I'm writing a little discussion about why the map $f:[0,2\pi)\to S^1/f(x)=(\cos x,\sin x)$ is continuous, one-one and onto.
But it's inverse is not.
ah.....
:D :D :D :D :D
@BenjaLim Yay!
In a bar:
dumped guy: "My girlfriend left me because I told her I loved her!"
other guy: "What a witch!"
dumped guy: "No, it's all my fault, she's a mathematician, and I should have said 'I love you and only you'".
05:36
@PeterTamaroff Read number 2: math.stackexchange.com/questions/169876/…
@Former_Math_Addict HAHA
@PeterTamaroff read number 2
What's a girlfriend?
@HenryT.Horton LOL
@BenjaLim Yes!
Sorry i meant number 1
05:37
@BenjaLim Yes, sure. I understood the first time
@BenjaLim In my case $(1,0)$ is the problem
yes
@PeterTamaroff Now prove that $S^1$ is not homeomorphic to $[0,1]$
It's like $g:S^1\to [0,2\pi)$ cuts $S^1$ at $(1,0)$
@BenjaLim Don't you mean $[0,1)$? BTW, I only know about topological equivalence in emtric spaces.
that's definitely not homeomorphic to $S^1$
one is compact the other is not
but why is $[0,1]$ not homeomorphic to $S^1$?
@BenjaLim I don't know about homeomorphisms yet. Remember, only metric spaces now.
I'm only one section away from Topological Spaces though.
@PeterTamaroff doesn't matter
05:40
@BenjaLim ¿¿??
@HenryT.Horton How can I say correctly that $S^1$ is transformed into $[0,2\pi)$ by cutting it at $(1,0)$ so this transformation isn't continuous?
Just colloquially.
Points close to each other are set apart.
@PeterTamaroff you're still thinking about continuity in the wrong way.
@BenjaLim Why?
You need to think about it in terms of open sets
your function $f$ gives a bijective map from $[0,2\pi)$ to $S^1$ yes?
To see the inverse is not continuous
@BenjaLim Yep
look for example at $[0,\pi/2)$
this is open in the subspace metric on $[0,2\pi)$ yes?
05:44
@BenjaLim Yes.
Because it is $(-\pi/2,\pi/2) \cap [0,2\pi)$
It is the underlying set of the metric so it is open.
@BenjaLim ?¿?¿
Now the image of this under $f$ is the quarter strip of $S^1$ from $0$ to 90 degrees, excluding $(0,1)$
yes?
@BenjaLim Oh, $\pi/2$...
@PeterTamaroff I made the correction
05:46
@BenjaLim Yes
it should have been the top point excluded
Now suppose that this strip is open
Look at the point $(1,0)$
@BenjaLim It isn't, right?
yes
but that's what you want to show :D
because showing that this is not open
@BenjaLim Right.
proves that $f^{-1}$ is not continuous :D :D
05:47
@BenjaLim Precisely.
@BenjaLim I guess you're no longer under the weather!
well yes
Now peter
@BenjaLim Sorry, I meant to use "under the weather" as "blue" but it meant "ill".
You're ill?
@BenjaLim Yes?
explain to me why you can never find a ball $B$ about $(1,0)$ such that this $B \cap S^1 \subseteq f\big([0,\pi/2) \big)$
no
just had an argument with someone
anyway
@PeterTamaroff draw a picture!
@BenjaLim I already did! =D Wanna see it?
show the pic
that's a good enough proof
And here's justification for why we can just draw balls and not any open set: The balls form a basis for the Euclidean topology on $\Bbb{R}^2$
05:51
@BenjaLim Yeah. =D
@PeterTamaroff GIVE ME THE PICTURE GODAMMIT
@BenjaLim I have to scan it, Speedracer.
@PeterTamaroff It can mean either, depending on context.
@BenjaLim OK, scanning in progress.
Done.
Uploading...
ok
what I basically wanted to tell you
if you want such a ball $B$
it first of all has to be entirely above the $x$ - axis
is
otherwise it can't be such that $B \cap S^1$ is contained in the image
but if it is entirely above the $x - axis$
it misses $(1,0)$
that's where constructing such a ball is impossible
06:01
@BenjaLim You're still talking about $x\mapsto (\cos 2\pi x,\sin 2 \pi x)$ right? Becasue my pic is about $x\mapsto (\cos x,\sin x)$
yes
well same thing really :D
@BenjaLim So my pics are ok, no?
I'm a bit confused with $f$ and $g$
@BenjaLim $f$ is $f:[0,2\pi)\to S^1$ and $g$ is its inverse.
Oh!
Where it says
$f(N')$
$g(N')$
it should be
what is $N'$
@PeterTamaroff do you get my explanation above?
06:04
@BenjaLim The red arc that has $N'$ next to it.
@BenjaLim It is a nbhd of $(1,0)$ in the metric space $S^1$
I think you have the pics the other way round
because if $N'$ is a neighbourhood about the point on the circle
talking about $f(N')$ doesn't make sense
@BenjaLim I just said it should read $g(N')$
=D
@BenjaLim I think I do.
good
06:09
@BenjaLim So how is univ going for you?
starting on monday
@BenjaLim What are courses are you taking?
algebraic topology
special topics in algebra
and
several variable analysis
@BenjaLim "Special topics"?
decided by the lecturer
06:14
@BenjaLim Oh. I need to study algebra.
hahahahahaah
@BenjaLim Seriously, dude.
@BenjaLim Remember I started with linear algebra a while ago?
yes?
@BenjaLim Well, I didn't really move on.
ok
why
06:22
@BenjaLim Algebra was boring. But you and t.b. told me it is important.
ahahahahahahahahahahahahahahaha
complete opposite of me
Maybe later on it will get interesting.
@BenjaLim Why?
i like algebra
@BenjaLim I'm not saying I don't. Just that it hasn't caught me up yet.
@BenjaLim Topology exercise:
yes>
user19161
06:27
@PeterTamaroff I remember you got A survey of modern algebra.
Prove that if $f:X\to Y$ and $g:Y\to X$ are inverse functions with $X$, $Y$ metric spaces, then the following statements are equivalent:
$(1)$ $O\subset X$ is open $\iff$ $f(O)\subset Y$ is open.
$(2)$ $F\subset X$ is closed $\iff$ $f(F)\subset Y$ is closed.
I'll prove that and call it a day.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Did you leave out continuity there?
@JasperLoy Not $f,g$ being continuous is equivalent to those, too.
I actually have four equivalencies
Oh, sure.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Oh I misread the question. I see now.
I have these other two, however:
06:31
I think this is a triviality from the fact that complements distribute over taking preimages
$(3)$ $f,g$ are continuous
$(4)$ For each $a\in X$ and $N\subset X$, $N$ is a nbhd of $a$ $\iff$ $f(N)$ is a nbhd of $f(a)$
I have as a theorem that $(4)$, $(3)$ and $(1)$ are equivalent.
And I have to prove $(1)$ and $(2)$ are.
I think I can use $(3)$ as a middle-man.
It follows by the characterization of continuity in terms of open and closed sets.
$f:X\to Y$ is continuous $\iff$ the preimage $f^{-1}(F)$ ($f^{-1}(O)$) of a closed (open) set $F$($O$) in $Y$ is closed (open).
This long theorem about those four equivalences says that $X$ and $Y$ are topologically equivalent iff there exist inverse functions that establish a one-one correspondence between the open sets / closed sets / complete systems of nbhs of the two spaces.
aka homeomorphism
@PeterTamaroff (1) and (2) are equivalent
@BenjaLim Yes.
I have to prove it.
simply by the fact that for any $U \subset Y$ you have $f^{-1}(U^{c}) = (f^{-1}(U))^c$ :D
@BenjaLim That's all there is to, right?
06:42
but write it out
because now
the preimage is just $g$
so you actually have $g(U^{c}) = g(U)^c$
I think I got it: $O$ is open iff $O^c$ is closed $\subset X$, by $(3)$ (which I have as a theorem is eqiv to $(1)$) iff $f^{-1}(O^c)=f^{-1}(O)^c$ is closed iff $f^{-1}(O)$ is open which is true by $(3)$. So $F=O^c$ does the job.
Conversely $O=F^c$ should work just the same.
@BenjaLim

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