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00:00
@TedShifrin yeah, it seems intuitive that its uncountable. Since for any real number you can construct a function $f$: $\{$ 1 $\}$ $\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ which maps to it.
Not just uncountable. Specifically in bijection with $\Bbb R$.
yeah, but how does that help with showing that $B(\{$ 1 $\})$ is equal to $\mathbb{R}$?
they're in one to one correspondence. I agree.
Every function on a finite space is bounded.
$B(\{1\})=\mathbb{R}^1$, but $\mathbb{R}^1\neq\mathbb{R}$
00:04
what? @Thorgott
Speaking in a very strict set-theoretic sense
Let's not confuse the poor @topologicalmagician
I think this distinction is what the confusion is about, $\mathbb{R}^n$ is the set of all functions from $\{1,...,n\}$ to $\mathbb{R}$
then $\Bbb R^1$ is the set of all functions from $\{1\}$ to $\Bbb R$. So?
That is in obvious bijection with $\Bbb R$, as I said.
So $B(\{1\})=\mathbb{R}^1$, because any such function is bounded.
00:08
$\mathbb{R}^n$ $=$ $\{$ $(x_1,x_2...,x_n)$ $:$ $x_i \in \mathbb{R}$ $\}$ Thats the definition the lecturer gave. The one you provided is equal to that one ? @Thorgott
@topologicalmagician: $f(i)=x_i$.
How do you define a tuple? I define it as a function $\{1,...,n\}\rightarrow\mathbb{R}$, so the definitions are equal.
(I'm aware I'm skipping over a slight subtlety here, but I'm doing this intentionally)
OK, so what I wrote earlier makes sense.
1
Q: Space of bounded functions and $\mathbb{R}^N$

topologicalmagicianLet $B(X)$ $=$ $\{$ $f:X\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ $:$ $f$ is bounded $\}$. Show that if $X=$ $\{$ $1,2...,n$ $\}$. Then $B(X)$ $=$ $\mathbb{R}^n$. My attempt: If $g$ is a bounded function from $X$ to $\mathbb{R}$ then observe that $g(1)=x_1$, $g(2)=x_2$...., $g(n)=x_n$. Hence $g$ coincides with t...

The substantial part is to note that any real-valued function on a finite set is bounded, simply because the range is finite. The rest is just a matter of definitions.
To me the point is that every function on a finite set is bounded (why?), and so we forget about the boundedness criterion.
LOL, we're saying the same thing. I will shaaddup :)
00:15
since it maps to finite many points, so it has to be bounded
Hey hot cats.
thanks guys @TedShifrin @Thorgott
What's up, @anakhro?
Just thinking about food.
Dreaming, one might say.
00:18
What are you up to?
Just hanging out for a little bit.
Was doing a cute exercise today: f:R->R additive & continuous implies linear.
Follow up is to drop continuous and add measurable.
The follow-up is significantly harder.
00:25
It takes a bit more machinery, but about the same length of proof.
The continuous case is a two-liner. Can you get the measurable case that short?
I am curious to hear your two liner. Mine involves several steps proving what f(0) is, f(-x), f(nx) and f(x/n).
And then one line to finish it off.
So 5 lines to be exact.
It's the same. Additive implies linear over the prime field $\mathbb{Q}$, which is dense in $\mathbb{R}$, so it's $\mathbb{R}$-linear by continuity. You're right that it's a couple more lines if argued in complete detail, but I think the measurable case will be significantly longer still if argued in the same detail.
It's not hard to get linearity once you have local boundedness, but I can't remember how you get that and I think that's the non-trivial part
My solution isn't significantly longer.
00:41
Is there a trick?
00:52
Definitely.
What's that cipher again people use for leaving hints?
Definition: Let $n\in\mathbb{N}$ be fixed. Given a set $X$. An $n-tuple$ of $X$ is **defined** by a function $\textbf{x}:$ $\{$ 1,2....,n $\}$ $\rightarrow X$. The $n-tuple$ is denoted by the following:

$\textbf{x}=(x_1,x_2....,x_n)$ where $x_i$ $=$ $\textbf{x}(i)$


From the above definition ,it is immediate that:
If $X,Y$ are sets. Then

$X\times Y$ $=$ $\{$ $(x,y)$ $:$ $x\in X$ and $Y\in Y$ $\}$ $=$ $\{$ $\textbf{x}$ $:$ $\{$ 1,2 $\}$ $\rightarrow $ $X\cup Y$ : $\textbf{x}(1)\in X$ and $\textbf{x}(2)\in Y$ $\}$
@Thorgott, @TedShifrin what I wrote above is an attempt to organise my thoughts. Is everything correct?
Is there anything you have doubts about?
after what I wrote, no. @anakhro
 
3 hours later…
04:20
what is the branch of applied logic that is used for things like developing false flag operations and the like?
 
6 hours later…
09:59
Are you around? @Balarka
 
2 hours later…
11:44
@Alessandro Am now.
I'm looking for "interesting" examples of metric spaces which are not proper
Where by interesting I think I mean that they are unbounded but not infinite dimensional
The examples I usually think of are either infinite dimensional Banach spaces or things like $d'(x,y)=\min\{d(x,y),1\}$ for some metric $d$ on a noncompact metric space
I forgot what proper means. Closed balls are compact?
@BalarkaSen yes
What about infinite valence graphs with length metric
It's a strong version of locally compact
11:52
Right, makes sense.
@BalarkaSen Hm that's interesting
I think something like an infinite plane grid with a complete countable tree attached to each node should be an example of a nonproper unbounded metric space with asymptotic dimension strictly between $1$ and $\infty$
It immediately makes the point clear to me regarding why these should not be studied in coarse geometry
Yes, properness is pretty much automatically assumed everywhere in coarse geometry
@AlessandroCodenotti Hm, what is this attaching procedure? I can attach a monovalent tree to each node and get something from $\Bbb Z^2$ which is very much proper. So I may be misunderstanding.
The complete countable tree is the rooted tree with countably many immediate successors for every node (as a set theorist would say, $\omega^\omega$). I'm thinking about the Cayley graph of $\Bbb Z^2$, where every vertex is the root of such a tree
11:59
Ah, by countable you mean countably infinite.
Got the picture.
Infinite valence pops up quite often if you try to take universal cover of complicated looking spaces, like $T^2 \vee \Bbb{RP}^2$, and see what the Bass-Serre description looks like
Makes me wonder if there's a coarse way to handle these stuff
Trying to think about non proper spaces will be part of my thesis hopefully :P
12:03
By complicated I mean if one of $X$ and $Y$ has infinite fundamental group the Bass-Serre tree corresponding to $\widetilde{X \vee Y}$ is not finite valence.
@Alessandro Cool!
I'd try to read something like that
12:19
y0
How’s it going?
It's going okay. Sitting in my office and reading about Model theory while I wait for my first class. How about you?
Nise, sitting at home smashing my head against modular forms notes
This is that complex analysis course?
12:29
Well it's a modular forms course lol
Fair enough
but modular forms are complex theoretic objects so
The detail of $f(\frac{az+b}{cz+d})=(cz+d)^kf(z)$ is an interesting one
"Why is that there?" I find myself wondering
Like, what is it that makes that property desirable?
Well, you have an action of $\operatorname{SL}_2(\Bbb Z)$ on meromorphic functions on the upper half plane by $(f|_k M)(z) = (cz + d)^{-k} f(Mz)$ and a modular form of weight $k$ and level 1 is then a function that is invariant under this action
and then idk
you get a fourier expansion for modular forms because the invariance under this action guarantees also 1-periodicity
and then there's interesting number theoretic information stuck inside the fourier coefficients
You lost me at meromorphic, unfortunately. You're a bit more advanced into this stuff than I could hope to be
12:36
well it just means the functions are holomorphic on the upper half plane except for some poles
Anyway a nice thing about modular forms is that you can find some nice generators for the space of holomorphic modular forms as a direct sum of copies of $\Bbb C$
and that gives you a nice way of computing the Fourier series for a modular form in terms of the Fourier series for "Eisenstein series"
and then some cool shit happens idk
Does anyone here know whether log(n!) and (log n)! are asymptotically the same?
what's (log n)!
12:57
I imagine $\Gamma(\text{log}(n)+1)$
@Rithaniel Hmm for some reason I cant see the Latex for this
Check out the links in the top right of the screen: tinyurl.com/cfqcvpc
Ah ok I see it
I tried using Stirling's approximation to get the bounds for (log n)!
Let k = log n
lg(k!) = theta(k lg k)
lg((lg n)!) = theta k lg k
(lg n)! = n lg n
13:16
HI
Im completely stuck on something super basic
I have shown that for some $n\times n$ matrix $M$, the following holds:
$$
-\log M = \int_0^\infty d\alpha [(M+\alpha)^{-1}-(1+\alpha)^{-1}]
$$
The next question is to show that $\operatorname{Tr}(M\delta\log M)=0$ whenever $\operatorname{Tr}(\delta M)=0$
This seems so basic but I cannot for the life of me derive it
Well ok I've been stuck on it for 4 hours but that seems excessive for something this simple
Let $x$ be an element in some $C^*$-algebra. What does it mean to say that it is a contraction? I know what it means for a linear operator between normed spaces to be a contraction, but what about an element in an abstract $C^*$-algebra?
Does it just mean that $||x|| \le 1$?
14:04
Does there exist a polynomial of integer coefficient such that it is irreducible over every finite fields? I believe it has been asked before but I cannot find a link.
14:14
5
Q: Minimal polynomial reducible modulo every prime $p$

foalySuppose $K = \mathbb{Q}(\alpha)$ with $\alpha = a + b\sqrt{D_1}+c\sqrt{D_2}+d\sqrt{D_1D_2}$ with $D_1,D_2 \in \mathbb{Z}$. Prove that the minimal polynomial $m_\alpha(x)$ for $\alpha$ over $\mathbb{Q}$ is irreducible of degree 4 over $\mathbb{Q}$ but is reducible modulo every prime $p$. In partic...

@KemonoChen
In case that was not a typo and you want irreducible mod every prime, then $X$ suffices.
Thanks to you two, what about polynomials of degree $\ge2$?
$X^4+1$ is irreducible over Q and reducible mod every prime
How can I prove $(C^1([a,b]), \left\lVert \cdot\right\rVert_{\infty} )$ is not a relfexive space?
14:30
It is irreducible over Q by Eisenstein and reducible mod every prime, because you can factor it into two quadratics depending on whether -1,2 or -2 is a square mod p (at least one of which is always the case)
Sorry, I meant irreducible over both $\mathbb F_p$ and $\mathbb Z$.
I know $C^1([a,b]), \left\lVert \cdot\right\rVert_{C^1})$ is not reflexive, and $C^1([a,b])$ is not closed in $C^0([a,b])$
14:46
@KemonoChen there's no such polynomial of degree $\geq 2$. Let $f \in \Bbb Z[x]$ of degree $\geq 2$. Then $f -1$ and $f+1$ have only finitely many roots (bounded by the degree of $f$), so there's a $n \in \Bbb Z$ such that $f(n) \neq \pm 1$. But then $f(n)$ is divisible by some prime $p$, so $f$ has a root mod $p$ and is not irreducible mod $p$
Hey @Lukas
Hey @Edward
How's it going ? :P
Neat.
Hiya @Thorgott too
14:48
Learning for the adic spaces exam, the material is pretty tough. @Edward
and yourself?
Studying modular forms, I have just decomposed the Hecke algebra into a tensor product of the p-primary parts
@LukasHeger That's great! Thanks
and also getting excited over the ANT seminar :P
@LukasHeger wow
15:21
@EdwardEvans I actually know Marius Leonhardt from a conference
the guy who does the ANT seminar
 
1 hour later…
16:41
So, I had this idea. Kind of a generalization of polynomial rings. Given a ring $R$ and a monoid $M$, define $R[M]$ as the set $\{\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}n_im_i\mid n_i\in R\}$ with operations $$\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}n_im_i+\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}x_im_i=\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}(n_i+x_i)m_i$$ and $$(\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}n_im_i)(\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}x_im_i)=\sum\limits_{m_i\in M}p_im_i$$ where $$p_i=\sum\limits_{m_jm_k=m_i}n_jx_k$$
I'm not sure it's necessarily a ring, but showing it to be so (or not) should be fairly straight forward. Is this anything you guys recognize at a glance?
@Lukas nice, is he cool? :D
yeah, he's a cool guy
and knows a lot of NT
Nice :D
I think next semester is gonna be a good semester for me lol
Also @Lukas this is the paper we're reading from for ANT arxiv.org/pdf/math/0606108.pdf
ah, so you're doing Lubin-Tate theory
yeah
which looks cool I guess
although there doesn't seem to be any explicit mention of topological properties at all
which for some reason I expect
anyway I'm super excited for that and analytic nt and algebra 2 lol
16:58
Here's a cool identity you two might like @Edward @Lukas
$$\left ( \sum_{a = 0}^{p-1} \left ( \frac{a}{p} \right ) \zeta_a^p \right )^2 = \left ( \frac{-1}{p} \right ) p$$
Although you probably already know this
@Lukas didn't we talk about this in some form in L-functions?
anyway cool
yeah I like it
This can be used to prove $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{p})/\Bbb Q$ is abelian lol
Kronecker-Weber for $\Bbb Q$ with a bunch of square-roots adjoined
17:02
@EdwardEvans yes, this Gauss sum appears in the $\varepsilon$-factor for the Dirichlet $L$-function associated to the Dirichlet character $(\Bbb Z/p)^\times \to \Bbb C^\times, a \mapsto \left ( \frac{a}{p} \right )$
right
nice
(The thing I just posted is apparently already a studied thing, called a Monoid Ring)
@EdwardEvans Recommend good depressive suicidal black metal
Hvis lyset tar oss
heh heh
Oh I know a band you might like
Oh Burzum I have heard this of course
17:03
although idk if I'd call it DSBM
@Rithaniel yes, but it's great that you came up with this generalization on your own! for example if $R$ is a field and $M$ is a group, then this ring is heavily used in representation theory
@Balarka Have you heard of Lurker of Chalice?
Nope
Gonna check this out
it's the guy from Leviathan
17:04
very cool album, but a bit more doomy than DSBM
Thanks!
Shall look into it
Granite is fookin amazing
both the mineral and the song
What are your top 5 minerals?
Granite, granite, granite, granite, evian
17:14
acquired taste
lol
I don't know much mineralogy
@Balarka you know wolves in the throne room already right?
@EdwardEvans Yeah they are great
Which album from them is your fav?
Speaking of doom do you listen to SubRosa?
Wolves in the throne room are fantastic
17:32
Is (a,b,c) (i.e. a+bx + ce^x mapped to (a,b,c)) a valid isomorphism from $\mathbb{Span(1,x,e^x)}$ to $\mathbb {R^3}$?
Specifically, I don't see the need to write the expansion of e^x.
Indeed, there's no need
Just counting dimensions is enough
@Balarka Diadem of 12 Stars is great hehe
@Alessandro approve
Don't know SubRosa
oh and Black Cascade is a great album too
@Thorgott Thanks.
18:12
@EdwardEvans try "More Constant than the Gods"
18:24
@Alessandro taking a look now
18:38
@Lukas ANT 2 is gonna be held in the Wintersemester 20/21, I guess alongside algebraic geometry lol
which is fun
@EdwardEvans let me know what you think
it was cool :D
long ass songs
Also @Balarka and @Alessandro: Check out Darkspace if you like inaccessible black metal where the songs consist of 15 minutes of blast beating
based on space and alien horror movies
hahaha
Uhm I'm not sure whether I like that
I'll check it out though
18:50
Let $B(V,V)$ be the space of bounded linear maps from $V\rightarrow V$. Show that the operator norm (defined in terms of infimum) is a norm: Is the infimum the minimum in this case?
How is the operator norm defined?
$inf\{$ $k\geq 0$ $:$ $k$ is a bound for $T$ $\}$
$=$ $||T||$
what is a bound for $T$ then?
$V$ is a normed space. The operator norm is denoted by $||T||_{op}$ = $inf $\{$ $k\geq 0$ $:$ $k$ is a bound for $T$ $\}$ where $||T(x)||\leq k||x||$ for all $x$
Do you see why testing all $x$ with $\|x\|=1$ is equivalent?
18:57
@AlessandroCodenotti do you mean for all non-zero x?
I mean do you see why asking $\|Tx\|\leq k\|x\|$ for all $x$ is equivalent to asking it for all $x$ such that $\|x\|=1$?
19:11
@EdwardEvans Thanks! I will look into it
Listening to Lurker of Chalice now
niiiice
19:22
Darn this is good
@Edward Have you listened to Enslaved btw
19:44
@Balarka I definitely have
Striker is my favourite song of theirs
That's a good one!
20:34
Hi @Ted
urgh my laptop keeps showing people as online while they're not, I greet them, the page refreshes and they're gone
I'm still around but leaving to get a cigarette
I'll come back in 5
@EdwardEvans Diadem of 12 Stars is absolutely amazing
I finished, and then put it back on
Truly is
20:58
Two Hunters is also really good
Yeah that's one of the albums by them I have listened to
21:25
@BalarkaSen what kind of chess do they play in India?
21:37
@LeakyNun what kind of question is that? chess is chess
Xiangqi (Chinese: 象棋; pinyin: xiàngqí; English: ), also called Chinese chess, is a strategy board game for two players. It is one of the most popular board games in China, and is in the same family as Western (or international) chess, chaturanga, shogi, Indian chess and janggi. Besides China and areas with significant ethnic Chinese communities, xiangqi is also a popular pastime in Vietnam, where it is known as cờ tướng. The game represents a battle between two armies, with the object of capturing the enemy's general (king). Distinctive features of xiangqi include the cannon (pao), which must jump...
@LeakyNun wow , i knew of many variations of chess
but not as totally different game
21:48
@Balarka @Alessandro Black cascade is also a good album by them hehe
Demonic @Alessandro: Well, I was here briefly. Now here briefly once again.
I see, maybe my laptop isn't completely drunk then
@TedShifrin Hi Ted
I can pour your laptop a martini in a few hours, @Alessandro.
hi @Jacksoja.
What does that mean Ted?
pour martini on laptop?
21:52
No, it can drink it.
that is not good, for anyone ..
Okay haha
@TedShifrin I have a question about what course does one take in order to learn more about surfaces
I want to study projective geometry
and algebraic geometry in the future
Most schools no longer teach projective geometry, sadly.
OK, I have to leave for an hour, but I shall return eventually.
hi @TedShifrin did you enjoy the Austrian open men's final?
::dang:: missed him, again
22:11
@skullpatrol it is very common to miss Ted , happens to me alot of times too
yeah, that's why I said "again" :-)
there is another Ted that you could try to reach him if you want .
Yes I know, I just pointed the fact that this occur way to often
am just horsing around :)
history is a weird subject
and, as they say, it likes to repeat
22:19
Well it's impossible to know for events that occur in your lifetime as to what exactly happened
But I'm sure it repeats itself alot
Austrian Australian open @TedShifrin
22:34
@LukasHeger Hi Lukas
Hi @Jacksoja
I have written a new version of the proof of finite abelian group problem
want to check it and see if it is good?
if you are not busy ofcourse
go ahead
am not sure how to upload it here
but you do not mind if i just type it?
sure, just type it
22:37
okay so the idea is the same as before
we want to find two elements of relatively prime order such that their order will be larger than that of maximal element
only difference I did here now
let a = p^i (PRODUCT primes different from p )
that what i called "terms " last time
but to make it more mathematically sound
and b = a^(p^j) * ( PRODUCT primes different from p )
need not be the same ofcourse
imagine a product sign there haha
and then the argument would follow the same way but by using the uniqueness of prime factorization
@LukasHeger is it clear ? if yes is it good?
what is a and what is b?
oh nooo
that is not supposed to be like that
one moment
order of a = p^i (PRODUCT primes different from p )
order of b = (p^j) * ( PRODUCT primes different from p )
Ok all good now
What do you mean when you say prime factorization?
@Jacksoja My question remains. Surely you can't choose any two elements
What is a and what is b?
it is not really a needed statement @geocalc33 but just to say that we took out all the p's from the product
@LukasHeger yes sorry, a is element of maximum order
and b is any element
22:45
oh okay
that is what makes this work
any element? why is j>i, then?
coprime order!
:)
I don't follow
if you prove j>i, you're done
22:47
p is dividing the order of b to higher power than order of a
that is not what I prove thor
@Jacksoja but why is it possible to find a b with that property?
I prove under these circumstances it is not possible to find such b
yes Lukas
since the order of ab would be larger than that of a
since the group is abelian
so the orders of a and b are assumed to be coprime?
@LukasHeger I would send you a picture of how i written it if I could , hard to communicate math without latex
NO ! not that omg
but if the orders of a and b are coprime, then either i=0 or j=0
22:51
No no am totally lost , apologies
a^(p^i) and b ^ ( product in the order of b )
those are our elements of coprime order
order of a^(p^i) = the first product in the order of a
and order of b ^ ( product in the order of b ) is p^j
I think this would be more concise and comprehensible if you just gave those products names instead of writing these awfully long expressions
I agree
okay, but you want to prove that the order of every element divides the order of a. How does that follow from what you've done? you're close, but you still need an argument to finish
Yes i argued that the same situation has to happen with other primes
that is why i mentioned unique factorization property
so we must have that no exponent in the order of the prime factorization of b
can be larger than that of order of a
@LukasHeger My question is ! why did Heirstein wrote is his book
while posting this problem
as he does not know of anyone who solved this problem with elementary arguments in group theory
Did I use something not allowed in this proof?
I'm not sure what you're allowed to use, but your proof looks fine now
23:00
Thanks!
@LukasHeger If you have the book topics in algebra by heirstein page 48
problem 26
I don't have the book
I see , am not sure if am allowed to post a picture on main
In any case, do you know if there are theories about how to do arithmatic mod p ?
I mean not basic things
Stuff like taking square root or n roots
or given g and h in G
you find x such that g^x = h
without the obvious way of testing
I don't know of such a theory
you dont know or there is no such thing ? haha
I'm not aware of it, but it might exist
23:06
Ok ! thanks
23:38
waddup
Bob
Bob
23:52
good evening

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