@manooooh yes, you want to conclude $X\in\{\emptyset\}$, which is the same as $X=\emptyset$. is this the same as $X\in\mathcal{P}(A)$ and $X=\emptyset$?
But when you wrote those semicolons, user76284 appropriately asked what you were writing. I interpret it as three separate questions that should not have been combined in the way you wrote it. Am I correct? @Alek
@manooooh: Oh, I see, you just had containment. So there are lots of subsets on the right-hand side as I described that are not subsets of $A-B$, but you just claimed containment. My mistake.
@TedShifrin yes: take $U=\{1,2\}$, $A=\{1,2\}$ and $B=\{2\}$. Then $A-B=\{1\}$ so $P(A-B)=\{\emptyset,\{1\}\}$, and $P(A)=\{\emptyset,\{1\},\{2\},\{1,2\}\}$, $P(B)=\{\emptyset,\{2\}\}$. So $P(A)-P(B)=\{\{1\},\{1,2\}\}$, and hence $P(A-B)\subseteq(P(A)-P(B))\cup\{\emptyset\}$
If you love using masochistic notation then $f^\star \circ ([0,1],(1,4],(4,\infty))$ might work. $f^\star$ is the preimage with the pullback notation, and I'm exploiting this notational convenience. Don't try this at home though.
@TedShifrin $X\in P(B)'$ is a relationship like $x\in A=\{1\}$. I write $x$ in capital letter since $P(A)$ contains sets, and sets are commonly denoted with a capital letter
So i think that i have to look for $\sigma (f^{-1}([0,1],(1,4],(4,∞)))$, that why I ask for that inverse image, where $\sigma ()$ is the sigma algebra generated for those elements inside ()
So $f^{-1}$ of the $\sigma$-algebra is again a $\sigma$-algebra, I guess, but you apply $f^{-1}$ to each element of that $\sigma$-algebra, one at a time.
Initially that was my doubt, and my thoughts were that the only thing that makes sense is to apply inverse image for ever subset, but this topic has been really confusing for me, so i wanted to make sure my thoughts were correct
In a way no, I just found other distractions. This semester I'm taking classes that actually all assign psets and I'm gonna try to be a part of some reading groups
At least if I can artificially place some deadlines on my head then maybe that'll help a bit
Or not artificially so much as like, okay with reading groups obviously it's not like the due dates are quite as "over your head" but hopefully this will at least get me to focus a bit
Demonark: In general, faculty expect graduate students to be more grown-up and responsible. Although I knew better and always assigned weekly or bi-weekly problem sets in every graduate course I ever taught. :D
That makes sense, yeah. This semester I'm going a bit harder on the algebra though eventually I'll wanna get back to some analysis. I've got homological algebra, elliptic curves, and AG2 (starting with Riemann Roch, then doing some basic scheme theory)
@Thorgott oh, yes since we know that $p\wedge q\to p$, so $X=\emptyset$ and $X\in P(A)$ implies $X=\emptyset$, which is the same as $X\in\{\emptyset\}$. And we are done!
@Daminark I've been giving seminar talks on group schemes/algebraic groups and rigid-analytic geometry and I'm taking lectures on adic spaces and L functions
When I took point-set topology in college from Munkres, he literally would not allow us to write any symbols other than $\in$, $\implies$, $\subset$, $\cup$, $\cap$ (and I'm sure I've forgotten a few) and the abbreviation s.t. for "such that."
Let me clear it for you and me: \begin{align*}\text{PROVE: $P(A-B)\subseteq (P(A)-P(B))\cup\{\emptyset\}$}\\\hline X\in P(A-B)=P(A\cap B')&\to X\subseteq A\wedge X\subseteq B'\\&\to X\in P(A)\wedge(X\in(P(B))'\vee X=\emptyset)\\&\to(X\in P(A)\wedge X\in(P(B))')\vee(X\in P(A)\wedge X=\emptyset)\\&\to(X\in P(A)\cap(P(B))')\vee(X=\emptyset)\\&\to X\in P(A)-P(B)\vee X\in\{\emptyset\}\\&\to X\in(P(A)-P(B))\cup\{\emptyset\}\end{align*}
Thanks @Thorgott and @TedShifrin for your huge help!
One can use symbols or can't use symbols. Is up to you. I prefer to use symbols in this particular situation because does not include quantifiers and the expressions are not long enough to get lost on the road
So, it's officially up to you in the sense of, we all have free will. But if you want other people to read your stuff then that's something you wanna take into consideration
I mean sure, just like, if there over comes a time where you ever do need others to read what you're doing, and it will likely come, be ready to make some concessions
@Thorgott Not at all. I found that every mathematician from whom I took courses or with whom I studied used hardly any symbols at all. If you're going to work in formal logic, then have at it. But if you ever are going to write a paper for publication, mathematics (not logic) journals want readable mathematics, i.e., words and not symbols.
And it's important for pedagogy to instill an understanding of concepts, not of symbols.
In the meantime, I'll avoid reading what manoooh chooses to write.
The fact that there exists irrational number $a,b$ such that $a^b$ is rational is proved by the law of excluded middle, but I read somewhere that irrationality of $\sqrt{2}^{\sqrt{2}}$ is proved constructively. Do you know the proof?
In mathematics, the Gelfond–Schneider theorem establishes the transcendence of a large class of numbers.
== History ==
It was originally proved independently in 1934 by Aleksandr Gelfond and Theodor Schneider.
== Statement ==
If a and b are algebraic numbers with a ≠ 0, 1, and b irrational, then any value of ab is a transcendental number.
=== Comments ===
The values of a and b are not restricted to real numbers; complex numbers are allowed (they are never rational when they have an imaginary part not equal to 0, even if both the real and imaginary parts are rational).In general, ab ...
A pregnancy test is accurate 97% of the time when someone is pregnant and 98% accurate when someone is not. Assuming that 60% of people who take the test are pregnant, and that someone tests positive twice in a row, what is the probability they actually are pregnant?
I think this is application ...
No one in here can help with that. You need a moderator. The question seems clear. It would have been nice if you'd shown some of your attempts or an approach other than just having a numerical hunch. But I personally do not even understand the question, so I can't help.
I'm trying to show that if $ \operatorname{ord}b \not \mid \operatorname{ord}a$, we can choose $r,s$ such that $\operatorname{ord}(a^r b^s) > \operatorname{ord} a$
@Ted, I thought about that direct sum of cyclic groups thing. Is that done by finding cyclic subgroups of maximal order, taking quotients (since each subgroup is normal cuz commutativity) and using induction?
I'm not sure if I understand your question, but I'd try to show that... my hypotheses are contradictory. :P Specifically, I'd try to show that there's an element with strictly bigger order than the one we supposed to have maximum order
Also, if you are willing to use the structure theorem, the question is trivial, because you can explicitly classify the orders of all elements, but that's not necessary here
@Balarka, with regard to a question on main on which I'm commenting ... there's no elementary way to see that the commutators of the generators of $\pi_1(\Bbb R^2-p-q)$ are nontrivial, right?
hi, demonic @Alessandro (will I get flagged yet again?).
Hi guys, I'm trying to solve the limit $\lim_{x\to 0} \frac{\sqrt{1+x}-\frac{1}{2}\sin(x)-\cos(x)}{\arctan(x^2)\sin(\frac{\pi}{3}\cos(x))}$. I can't seem to find the trick in order to solve it. Any suggestions please?
@TedShifrin I suppose one way to argue could be to show that $T^2$ is not homotopy equivalent to $S^1 \vee S^1 \vee S^2$. This you can conclude via ring structure in cohomology.
This proves the commutator is not nullhomotopic, because that's what the $2$-cell in $T^2$ is attached to the 1-skeleton by.
I wouldn't call this easy by any means, just interesting. You could potentially write a purely de Rham theoretic proof maybe.
Replacing cell structure by handlebodies to make everything a manifold
Fun fact: $\Sigma T^2$ is nonetheless homotopy equivalent to $\Sigma(S^1 \vee S^1 \vee S^2) = S^2 \vee S^2 \vee S^3$
Suspending completely "untangles" the cell structure, thanks to higher homotopy groups being abelian (commutator becomes nullhomotopic after suspending)
Let $\ell = \operatorname{lcm}(m,n)$ with $m = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{\alpha_i}$ and $n = \prod_{i=1}^k p_i^{\beta_i}$. Break $\ell$ down in two relatively prime products $m' = \prod_{\alpha_i \geq \beta_i} p_i^{\alpha_i}$ and $n' = \prod_{\beta_i > \alpha_i} p_i^{\beta_i}$
And also gives you the general procedure to find an element whose order is the lcm (granted the elements commute)
Here's what I did: Let $d=\mathrm{gcd}(m,n)$. Then $a^d$ has order $m/d$ and $b^d$ has order $n/d$, which are coprime, hence the order of $a^db^d$ is $mn/d^2=l/d$. But, by commutativity, this is $(ab)^d$ and that implies the order of $ab$ is $l$.