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00:00 - 20:0020:00 - 00:00

00:00
You're right, although that's a very specific case. How can I generally solve this kind of problem?
The next problem is to find $[\mathbb{Q}(\sqrt{2}, \sqrt[3]{2}) : \mathbb{Q}]$, in which this argument wouldn't work.
I could use that $\mathbb{Q}[$number$] \cong \mathbb{Q}[X]/$(min poly of number), but the book didn't get there
Writing down minimal polynomials is a generally good approach. Arguments like the above can often help simplify things. So can embedding everything in $\mathbb{C}$ (in case you're dealing with extensions of $\mathbb{Q}$).
Oh, there's this theorem that assures that $\exists \gamma: \,F[\alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_n] \cong F[\gamma]$ using embbedings. So once you find such gamma, you're done (just get the first powers of gamma)
If you are referring to the primitive element theorem, that requires your extension to be finite and separable (the latter being an integral condition)
Also, finding primitive elements can, in general, get quite ugly
I'm using S. Lang's book, and this comes literally after this theorem (he doesn't give a name)
Maybe he gave these problems just to apply the theorem.
00:16
A fairly nice result is that if $K$ is a field of characteristic $0$ and $K(\alpha,\beta)$ is a finite extension such that $K(\alpha)/K$ and $K(\beta)/K$ are Galois extensions, s.t. $K(\alpha)\cap K(\beta)=K$, then $K(\alpha,\beta)=K(\alpha+\beta)$.
which theorem in Lang?
@Thorgott I'll learn about Galois extensions literally in the next page :)
@Thorgott it's in his Undergraduate Algebra; theorem 6 in the Field theory chapter.
Ah, I see. He circumvents separability for a bit by only discussing characteristic $0$. This is addressed in a Remark further down.
 
2 hours later…
02:05
$(x,y) \mapsto (y,x)$
This is an inverse map
it reflects $(x,y)$ across the line $y=x$
do you mean that it's a map which is its own inverse?
if so, the more typical name for that is an involution
(no idea why tbh)
what about $(x,y) \mapsto (-y,x) $
that has order 4
so it's a $4-$ involution?
eh, that's not how the terminology works
all involution deals with is "is it its own inverse", not "if I act enough times, is it the identity map"
in group theory, you refer to that exponent as the "order" of a group element (hence Leaky's comment)
02:17
oh yeah
$f(x,y) \mapsto f(-y,x) $
that's not a map.
well
not unless you consider it as "invert f to get (x,y) from f(x,y), then apply the rotation, then apply f again"
I guess what I'm trying to say is a function that maps all points $(x,y) \mapsto (-y,x)$
that'd just be $f(x,y)=(-y,x)$
ah yes
a fun variation on this is to consider the linear transformation with matrix $M=\begin{pmatrix} \cos\theta & \sin \theta \\ -\sin \theta & \cos \theta\end{pmatrix}$
If $\theta=\pi/2$, then that gives $(x,y)\mapsto (-y,x)$ as before
and if you consider $\theta=2\pi/n$ with odd $n$, then $M^n=I$
so you'd have a mapping of order $n$.
more generally, if $\theta = 2\pi p/q$ with $p,q$ in least terms, then it's a map of order $q$
best part, though, is when you replace $p/q$ with an irrational number
in that case, you'll never find an $n$ such that $M^n=I$. so in that case it'll have infinite order
02:27
that is a fun variation
even better is this: If you write that mapping as $T$ (as in, what it does to x/y rather than writing it as a matrix)
then you can ask how much different $T^n(x,y)$ is from $(x,y)$ after $n$ steps
if you have finite order, then eventually the two are the same for a certain $n$
if you have infinite order, you can't do that. but you can do this: for any (x,y), you can always find $n$ large enough that the distance between $T^n(x,y)$ and $(x,y)$ is arbitrarily small
I don't undertand that notation
$f(x,y)=(-y,x)$
that's a function of two variables
$f^{2}(x,y)=f(f(x,y)) = f(-y,x) = (x,y)$
is how I mean it
(could disambiguate that as $f^{\circ n}(x,y)$ I guess, i.e., the $n$-fold composition)
and the map $(x,y) \mapsto (-y,x)$ can be expressed as $M$
do you reckon $(x,y) \mapsto (\frac{1}{y}, \frac{1}{x})$ can be written as a matrix
this is an order two transformation (or an involution) as I've learned
as $$\begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix} \mapsto \begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1 \\ 1 & 0 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x \\ y \end{pmatrix}$$
@Ultradark not as a matrix acting on the vector (x,y)
it's not a linear function of x,y, so no matrix will work
that said, it is a linear function in the variables $\ln x,\ln y$
02:36
so can yone write it as a matrix doing a little trickery with that knowledge?
so you could write it as $$\begin{pmatrix} \ln x \\ \ln y\end{pmatrix} \mapsto \begin{pmatrix} 0 & -1 \\ -1 & 0\end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} \ln x \\ \ln y\end{pmatrix}$$
and this transformation is not linear. Is it a dilation?
it's not linear in $x,y$
it is linear in $\ln x,\ln y$
it probably doesn't look like anything nice, though
that's weird lol
at least, not in (x,y) space
note, though, that plotting curves in terms of logs is actually a pretty common trick for scientists
it's called a log plot if you plot x vs log(y) for (x,y) data
02:39
so I could plot this on a log-log plot
right. suppose you had some point set for which you made a log-log plot
if you then applied that mapping to those points, and plotted them, I think what that would do is inversion through the origin (here understood as the point $(\ln x,\ln y)=(0,0)$
what do you mean by "through the origin"
let me get a picture
hmm, looks like my interpretation was wrong:
better
what if you plot log(x) vs log(y)
that's a log-log plot of y=0.02x^(1/2) (blue line), and the orange line is what happens if you apply your map to all of the blue points
evidently, it flips it along the 45-degree line in that graph. that corresponds to the line log(y) = - log(x)
02:51
that's cool
can I test it out with more functions
what do you have in mind? log-log plots are mostly useful for power law relations like y=ax^r
since those come out as straight lines in log-log plots
is $r$ negative
it can be, yeah
the slope of the 'line' you get in a log-log plot is basically just r
so it can be either positive or negative
02:55
so when you do the change of variables $x=\ln(x)$ and $y=\ln(y)$ the now, linear, map is a reflection
right
well, you wouldn't write it like that
because it looks like you're doing equations not substitutions :P
in more colloquial terms, I think you'd say that the mapping $(x,y)\to (\ln x,\ln y)$ "linearizes" the mapping $(x,y)\to (1/y,1/x)$
that's really useful when the 'linearizing' mapping is simple and invertible
typically, though, you can't make things exactly linear
best you can do is some kind of approximation
so it's great when you can pull it off, but one is not always so fortunate
I will remember this useful map if I need to make something linear sometime in the future
it's very problem-dependent, unfortunately
(there is theory about how one finds such mappings, but I think that falls under Lie theory and that's outside my realm of expertise)
mappings that linearize nonlinear maps?
right
which is not surprising, really
it's not unlike the situation with integrals: it's easy to start with a simple integral and, by integrating by parts and substituting, get a complicated-looking one which is still solvable
what's hard is to look at two similar integrals and detect that one is easily solvable
03:12
can $(x,y)\to (1/y,1/x)$ be a projective map?
@ShineOnYouCrazyDiamond Good proof +1
Love that ted E
good job that looks like a nice question
03:28
If $am^2 = bn^2$ where all vars are integers.
Let $a = a'x^2$ where $a'$ is square-free
$b = b'y^2$.
Then $a' = b'$ and $x^2 m^2 = y^2 n^2$
Then $\text{lcm} (a,b) = a'\text{lcm}(x,y)^2$
@Ultradark can you figure it out?
0
Q: General way to determine $\mathbb{Q}(\gamma) = \mathbb{Q}(\alpha,\beta)$ given $\alpha$ and $\beta$

Lucas HenriqueI'm currently reading S. Lang's "Undergraduate Algebra". After the primitive root element theorem (Field theory chapter), there are a bunch of exercises to find one primitive element of extensions and, then, their degrees. However, I don't even know how I should start. They are as below: I...

03:43
$z =7\cdot 2^2\cdot (3 \cdot 5)^2 = 7 \cdot 3^2 (2\cdot 5)^2 \implies z\in \text{lcm}(a,b) \gcd(x,y)^2$.
 
1 hour later…
04:54
0
Q: Is $\Bbb{Z}$ compact under the evenly spaced integer topology?

Shine On You Crazy DiamondThe topology is generated by the basis $U_{a,b} = a \Bbb{Z} + b$. $\{U_{a,x}\}_{x = 1\dots a}$ covers $\Bbb{Z}$ for any $a \in \Bbb{Z}$ finitely since $x$ ranges over $1..a$. Does this somehow imply that any open cover of $\Bbb{Z}$ contains a finite subcover?

@Ultradark
topology in action
@shi
nice
can you help me with a simple quotient space example
05:18
How can I find the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt{2} + \sqrt[3]{2}$ ?
05:40
> The concept 'computable' is in a certain definite sense 'absolute', while practically all other familiar metamathematical concepts (e.g. provable, definable, etc.) depend quite essentially on the system to which they are defined. - Gödel
(From here)
@BalarkaSen I don't follow the details of the covering argument, but it makes sense, thanks!
06:09
Post-modernism is named after Emil Post
@LucasHenrique There are a few posts on main that can help you. You could check Finding the minimal polynomial of $\sqrt 2 + \sqrt[3] 2$ over $\mathbb Q$. and other posts linked there
I found it using Approach0, for more tips on searching, see: How to search on this site?
 
1 hour later…
07:16
0
Q: If $U_a = \{a n^2 - 1 : n \in \Bbb{Z}\}$ is a topological basis on $\Bbb{Z}$ then $U_a$ is clopen?

Shine On You Crazy DiamondLet $P = $ the prime numbers in $\Bbb{N}$. Define $P^i = \{ \pm q_1 \cdots q_i : q_j \in P\}$. These sets $\{ P^j\}_{j\geq 0}$ with $P^0 := \{\pm 1\}, P^{-1} := \{0\}$ form a basis for a topological space on $\Bbb{Z}$ turning it into a topological monoid. The basis sets $P^i$ are both open and...

 
6 hours later…
13:10
Hi chat
13:52
Afternoon
What do you call it when you bake 256 cookies
Snack overflow
14:53
cannot even make "=" noncircular => philosophers are screwed
Hi all
0
Q: $ b_n = \frac{\exp(\ln(b_{n-1})^3)} {b_{n-2}} $ Conjectured $\sup \inf$

mickMy mentor tommy1729 told me : Let $b_1 = 1.$ Let $ b_2 = x.$ Also $ \frac{1}{2} < x < 2 $ Define for $ n>2 $: $$ b_n = \frac{\exp(\ln(b_{n-1})^3)}{b_{n-2}} $$ Then $$ \sup_{n>2} b_n = x , \inf_{n>2} b_n = \frac{1}{x} $$ Is this true ? How to show that ?

15:44
Hi chat!
@MartinSleziak thank you! I checked this search engine yesterday but I wasn’t sure how I should use it.
16:12
the philosophy of the number one, is the smallest unit of identity
16:38
in Logic, 7 mins ago, by Secret
3
Q: Circularity in identity definition

Josef KlimukIt is written in the SEP: Identity is often said to be a relation each thing bears to itself and to no other thing (e.g., Zalabardo 2000). This characterization is clearly circular (“no other thing”)'. The question is: what is circular here? Deutsch, Harry and Garbacz, Pawel, "Relativ...

but what is identity, I have no idea
16:55
This is why category theorists want to burn the idea of "equality" to the ground and only allow isomorphisms
or so I'm told
In axiomatic set theory, we call two sets "equal" if there's nothing in one that's not in the other. For this reason, $\{1,2,2\}$ and $\{1,2\}$ are considered equal: for every object, if it's in one, it's in the other
Thus, we can kinda argue that "equal" in the theory doesn't mean identical but means close enough
The identity of indiscernibles is an ontological principle that states that there cannot be separate objects or entities that have all their properties in common. That is, entities x and y are identical if every predicate possessed by x is also possessed by y and vice versa; to suppose two things indiscernible is to suppose the same thing under two names. It states that no two distinct things (such as snowflakes) can be exactly alike, but this is intended as a metaphysical principle rather than one of natural science. A related principle is the indiscernibility of identicals, discussed below. A...
@Secret You're familiar with this^ I'm guessing
I like their Clark Kent example
Similarly
If I write an article and don't sign my name, the article's author is anonymous
If I write a second article and sign my name, that article's author is not anonymous
But I am the author of both articles. Am I anonymous or not?
Are "the first article's author" and "the second article's author" not identical, because one is anonymous and the other isn't?
@Secret Here's a screenshot from Jeff Week's Curved Spaces program
We can either interpret this as a triply periodic universe shaped like Euclidean space, or a compact universe shaped like the 3-torus
Are the Earths identical?
It depends on the interpretation, but there's no experiment that can determine which interpretation is correct, which means that both interpretations represent the same theory
yeah, if there is no indication that you are the author (including choice of words, handwriting etc.), there seemed to be no way to tell identical. The Jeff Week's case is even worse, because one of the most crazy interpretation is it is the same earth despite it looks like it is a copy at different spacetime locations
17:11
The only conclusion I can get is, since the concept of "identical" isn't determined by the theory, it's not a real property of the universe, only our understanding of it
Incidentally
It's been years since I've read that but I remember it being good
@Secret There's also a neat linguistic thing with how we use adjectives
Naïvely, we'd model them as conjunction: "This is a red ball" = "This is red and this is a ball"
But consider the example "He's a good person but a bad pilot"
The model fails ("He's good and a person and bad and a pilot?")
well, the "but" will probably mean you cannot resolve that as "and"
at least not directly
I don't actually quite understand the semantics of "but"
> introducing a clause contrary to prior belief or in contrast with the preceding clause or sentence
Is that semantics or pragmatics
(TODO: learn what pragmatics is)
"but" is supposed to convey some notion of contrast, so like the first half is related to a notion of desirable, and the latter half relates to a notion of undesirable, even though all 4 clauses are true description of the man
> Pragmatics is a subfield of linguistics and semiotics that studies the ways in which context contributes to meaning.
In any case I can say "He's a good person and a bad pilot" and still make sense
Entirely unrelated, but there's a sense in which the sentence "The boy threw the ball" is ungrammatical: it makes no sense unless we've established what boy and ball we're talking about (they have to already be "common knowledge" between us)
On the other hand, "A boy threw a ball" is grammatical whether or not we have a boy and ball in our common knowledge
Similarly, the sentence "I did." I can't start a conversation with that, so it's essentially "ungrammatical" in that context
We need to have established a verb
Correction: I think the technical term is "common ground" not "common knowledge"
Hold on let me watch this video
I don't think that's the right one; I vaguely remember one of their episodes going more into this topic
You know, I've heard lots of explanations of the Coriolis effect
I've never had it explained to me why the centrifugal and Coriolis forces are the only fictitious forces you get in a rotating reference frame
17:54
For your last question, it is because the centrifugal force is the axial component and the Coriolis force is the tangential component and a rotating frame is basically a 2D coordinate system which you can resolve any force into two orthogonal components in that system
Doesn't Coriolis depend on your velocity and centrifugal depend on your position?
Kinda like if friction pushed you to the side rather than backwards
I remain disappointed that this recent SMBV strip didn’t go full Nietzche
“Santa is dead, and we have killed him.”
18:11
Wat
Jeff Weeks made a 4D maze
@Semiclassical Santa is in a box with a Geiger counter and poison
(The box, naturally, has festive wrapping paper around it and a bow)
Also, nice hat
@AkivaWeinberger Thanks! Watching
In the half-space model, the points at infinity (the ideal points) form a plane, except for one. What's the name of that point?
I guess "ideal point at infinity" works
I just think of it as a sphere at infinity
It's basically saying it's at infinity at infinity
I don't think you assign any name to a specific point on the sphere
18:43
@BalarkaSen Yeah but in the half-space model
The ideal boundary is still a sphere
When you choose the model, one of the ideal points becomes special
They become special in the sense it's not embedded as the metric closure of the half-space in $\Bbb R^3$ anymore. So what
No geometric speciality is there
Yes but does it have a name
Shrug. Who cares
Feels like it shouldnt have
18:45
People who are thinking of the model as a function $f:\Bbb H^3\to\Bbb R^3_+$ that extends to a function $\bar f:\bar{\Bbb H^3}\to\bar{\Bbb R^3_+}$ and want to think about $\bar f^{-1}(\infty)$
Hi, I quite do not get how we could rewrite $F(x,y,z)=0$ as $z=f(x,y)$ if $F= yz^2+7+4xz-3x^2y$. I mean, we could use the quadratic formula, but we would get two distinct roots, and if z is plus/minus something, this is no more a function.
Anyone can help?
Why is that any different from thinking about $\overline{f}^{-1}(p)$ for any point $p$ on the ideal boundary lol
$p$ isn't a point on the ideal boundary
It's a Euclidean point
Type mismatch error
Oh your function maps to R^3_+
Why would you do that seems like a random thing to do
That's literally what the half-space model is
18:47
Which makes sense if "people" means singleton set Akiva
@Shootforthemoon That's not a function in $x$ and $y$. If you graph it, you'll see it fails the vertical line test
The half space model is a metric on R^3_+ which is isometric to H^3. It doesn't make sense to compare the metric boundary and the ideal boundary to me
It's similar to if you wanted to rewrite $x^2+y^2=1$ (whose graph is a circle) as $y={}$. You can write $y=\pm\sqrt{1-x^2}$ but there's no single formula because the circle fails the vertical line test
@AkivaWeinberger Ah, thanks what a relief
@BalarkaSen What if you want to draw it
18:50
You should be able to do it locally though
You'll want to think about how the hyperbolic elements interact with the Euclidean ones
Like, "in the Poincare model, hyperbolic circles are Euclidean circles. In the Beltrami–Klein model, they are ellipses"
That sort of statement
Fair enough
Not all properties are intrinsic properties
You might be interested in something I was thinking about here
and subsequent possible explanation here
About how geometry of the ideal boundary is inherently Euclidean in some sense
The natural "perception measures" on the ideal boundary are a family of Lebesgue measures
Hm. I feel like there shouldn't be an intrinsic measure
If you choose a basepoint and then centrally project it onto a sphere around the basepoint, you get a measure
but it depends on the basepoint
18:55
Yes, so you get a family of measures
And their consistency is given by the Radon-Nikodym derivatives; they are all absolutely continuous wrt each other
What's "absolutely continuous"
For measures $\mu$ and $\nu$ are a.c. wrt each other if $\mu = \int f d\nu$ for some $\nu$-measurable function $f$. It's like having a pdf
That's the origin of the term "absolutely continuous random variables", those which have a pdf
This is one of the many equivalent criterion for a.c.ness (assuming $\sigma$-finiteness and all)
That only implies $\mu$ is a.c. wrt to $\nu$, not the other way round, no?
Yeah I meant to say that
19:11
how do you do a one point compactification of a hyperbola
@Thorgott I saw your question about symmetric groups. The answer is not true, $Q_8$ is not a subgroup of $S_7$ even though $8$ divides $7!$
@Ultradark $\infty$
is it just the same topologically as a one point compactification of the real line
No
It's the shape of $\infty$
A lemniscate
oh lol
19:17
@BalarkaSen Finally beat that maze game
The hyperbolic orb thing
Those realms were massive
The boundary strategy is surprisingly useful to me
Yeah
@BalarkaSen But $S_7$ does have a subgroup of order $8$, namely an isomorphic copy of $D_4$.
I had bread crumbs on - it was surprising how rarely I saw them
Turns out the statement isn't true either way though. $S_5$ has no subgroup of order $30$, it seems.
19:17
Oh, I misunderstood the question.
(like how rarely I ended up where I was before)
> If one prefers, the maze lives on a compact Riemann surface of genus 8812 (having 352440 symmetries)
Wow
@Akiva I was able to draw essential closed curves using the bread crumbs
I could prove it's essential by Gauss-Bonnet
@akiva What maze game?
I have not yet figured out why $S_5$ has no subgroup of order $30$, however
19:19
@Thorgott $A_5$ has no index $2$ subgroup, I feel, is the way to go
@Akiva Thank you!
I mean if $H$ is a subgroup of order $30$ in $S_5$ then $H \cap A_5$ is either of order $15$ or $30$ in $A_5$.
30 is ruled out
Why is 15 not possible? Let's see
There's also this one on the same site which is mocking me with its info on the side
Oh, groups of order 15 are cyclic, that's why
@BalarkaSen Hard mode: play it on Beltrami–Klein
19:25
I am really unfamiliar with that model
It looks huge in B-K
You can barely see anything
What's the deal with Beltrami-Klein? I don't really know what the precise relation between the geometry of $\Bbb H^2$ and that is
It's like some stereographic projection, maybe?
@BalarkaSen You can conformally map H2 onto a hemisphere
Ah, it's conformal, right
Makes sense
To go from that to Poincaré, imagine it's the southern hemisphere and stereographically project from the north pole
To go from that to Beltrami–Klein, orthographically project downwards
So no it's not conformal
19:29
Huh
What do the geodesics look like once you conformally project to hemisphere
Slice it with vertical planes
Also of course it's not conformal because angles work like Euclidean geometry in B-K
so they're perpendicular to the boundary
in particular sum of angles of a triangle is still 180 degrees
19:31
@AkivaWeinberger Aight
This is why geodesics in Poincaré are arcs perpendicular to the boundary, and in Beltrami–Klein are straight lines
Why can the order of $H\cap A_5$ not be smaller than $15$?
@Thorgott This is a half-lives-half-dies fact. For every subgroup of $S_n$, if you intersect that with $A_n$, the order either remains the same or becomes halved
It's a good exercise
Essentially 2nd isomorphism theorem and index of $A_n$ in $S_n$ is $2$
@Akiva cool name, right?
19:33
Perfectly balanced
Very snappy
I'm struggling to find an example showing the implicit function theorem is not a double implication; anyone can help?
@Akiva Very cool how the simplest example of a Cannon-Thurston map arises out of lifting the map $T^2 \setminus pt \to S^3 \setminus K$ embedding a Seifert surface in the trefoil EDIT figure eight complement
The trefoil isn't a hyperbolic knot
You'd probably want the figure-eight knot
Yeah that
(There's no uniform hyperbolic metric on its complement)
19:53
Trefoil is a torus knot so has an essential annulus
So can't admit a negatively curved metric
What's an essential annulus
If you look at the torus the trefoil is sitting on, then remove the trefoil from the torus, you can an annulus
Ah
I was gonna say "two annuluses" (-i) but yeah it's just one going around twice isn't it
yeah u cant make a torus disconnected by removing one curve
betti number problems
Oh. Right. Genus
or that
19:57
Same difference yeah
I'd ask why that means you can't give it a hyperbolic metric but I feel like it might be in do Carmo and I forgot
Is the problem that it has 0 total curvature?
No I don't think it's trivial, but I'd be very interested if you can give me an easy proof
Wait that's not enough
Yeah I dunno I'll review do Carmo
Wait no I left it in New Haven!
(I'm back home for winter break)
I'll think about it
I don't actually think it covered cusped manifolds now that I think about it
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