For continuity, there's two definitions usually. A metric one and one with open sets. They're equivalent.
This boils down to the metric topology is generated by open balls so it suffices to check continuity on the open balls which is the definition of continuity.
Why is the equivalence of definitions important/what problems does it solve? It makes one's mind set up connections between metric space concepts and topology concepts so that one can work with both better. In particular abstract results about topology can walk through the bridge to give us results about metric spaces. But they g…
Consider a sketch of a flow in the upper half plane. In fact there are two identical copies of the same flow, with one reflected across the middle.
If we let the flows interact then this amounts to adding the vectors in the box portion. There should be generally a vertical flow after this adding process.
I see how to add the vectors in the box but not the vectors in the top right corner and the top left corner.
If I drop the triangle and rescale to the hexagon, then the sequence of fractions is 1, 8/9, 70/81, 626/729, 5626/6561, 50618/59049, 455530/531441, 4099706/4782969, 36897226/43046721, 332074778/387420489
converging to 6/7 evidently
the denominators are powers of 9
oeis doesn't recognize the sequence of numerators
ah, but I can instead write those as 1,1-1/9, 1-11/81, 1-103/729, 1-935/6561
and oeis does recognize 1,11,103,935...
specifically, as the coefficients in the expansion of 1/((1-2*x)*(1-9*x))
which suggests some recurrence relation
oh. better observation: the differences between successive fractions (i.e. the area lost at each step) are 1/9, 2/9^2, 2^2/9^3, 2^3/9^4, ...
so the area lost at each step decreases by 2/9
which is also true if I start from the triangle, so I guess that should go back
If $R$ is a division ring, then the only ideals of $R$ are $R$ and $\left\{0 \right\}$
Suppose $I \subseteq R$ is an ideal of $R$. Assume $I \ne \left\{0 \right\}$. Suppose $a \ne 0 \in I$ and $b \in R$. Then there's $x \in R$ s.t. $ax =xa= 1$. Thus $1 \in I$. Hence $1 \cdot b = b \cdot 1 = b\in I$. So $R \subseteq I$. Therefore $I = R$.
This is what the book said: suppose $I \subseteq R$ is an ideal of $R$. Assume $I \ne \left\{0 \right\}$. Let $a \ne 0 \in I$ and $b \in R$. Then $ax=b$ is solved in $R$, hence $b \in I$, thus $I=R$.
Could someone explain what "$ax = b$ is solved in $R$" means?
Balarka probably tried to explain this to me at one point. I still understand nothing
> A jet is really nothing more than the collection of all of the low-order derivatives of a function up to a certain point. For instance, the two-jet of f(x), a function of one variable, can be represented by the triple (f, df/dx, d^2f/dx^2)
does it really "matter" whether "x is a limit point of A" is defined to mean "every open contains a point of A" with or without the "other than x" condition?
Hatcher in his general topology notes omits the "other than x", and calls attention to it: p7 here
isn't his definition what goes by (iirc) "adherent point"?
and like i said does it matter at all for any applications (say, you know, if i'm doing algebraic topology with one definition vs another)
to me the simplest difference is whether a the range of a(n eventually) constant sequence has the constant it tends to as a limit point, which it does with Hatcher's definition and not otherwise
We have a 2D triangle. It has 3 points.
We have a 2D convex polygon. It has N points.
Normally when clipping, one wants to produce the polygon or list of triangles inside the convex polygon. I want to do the opposite. I want to get the list of triangles that do not intersect aside from borderin...
@SohamChowdhury Well atleast in functional analysis it does matter. To show that l^infinity is not metrizable or seperable, you need to use that the neighborhood intersects the set at points other than center of the neighborhood
@AkivaWeinberger Someone's been thinking about sphere eversion I see
I dunno if I ever gave you this puzzle but: Can you find a deformation of the graph of $z = x^2 + y^2$ over $\Bbb D^2 \setminus (0, 0)$ to the graph of $z = -(x^2 + y^2)$ over $\Bbb D^2 \setminus (0, 0)$ such that at no step in the deformation the surface is horizontal, i.e., some point of the surface has unit normal vertically pointing up.
Essentially everting a punctured hemisphere without ever making any part of the surface horizontal
@Akiva The "simple sphere eversion" is great. I always thought there should be some way to just to it by doing calculus on the singularity but never managed to figure out what's happening.
Somehow you have introduce a circle's worth of double points, and apparently you can do that by some magic on the cancelling pair of fold lines meeting at two cusps
Is the stereoraphic projection orientation reversing or preserving (from the Riemann sphere to the complex plane)... I have two different sources ( Gamelin "Complex analysis" and my course) contradicting each other on this.
Gamelin: "s.p. is orientation reversing, as a map from the sphere with orientation determined by the outer unit normal vector to the complex plane with the usual orientation"
Huh, I never observed that stereographic projection is orientation reversing. I see it now though, if I draw a little circle just east of the North Pole and project it, it flips upside down.
It's because 1/r is orientation reversing on R^+ I suppose
In mathematics, a complex square matrix U is unitary if its conjugate transpose U∗ is also its inverse—that is, if
U
∗
U
=
U
U
∗
=
I
,
{\displaystyle U^{*}U=UU^{*}=I,}
where I is the identity matrix.
In physics, especially in quantum mechanics, the Hermitian conjugate of a matrix is denoted by a dagger (†) and the equation above becomes
U...
The following conditions are equivalent doesn't mean the condition is equivalent to the hypothesis, it means the conditions (a), (b), (c), ... as stated are equivalent
I am reading about regular curves, and definition of that is: A differentiable curve is said to be regular if its derivative never vanishes. Wikipedia has this explanation about it: "In words, a regular curve never slows to a stop or backtracks on itself." I can't understand what 'backtracks on itself' means.
@Silent Consider $f : [-1, 1] \to \Bbb R^3$, $f(t) = (t^2, 0, 0)$. This is trajectory of a particle travelling from $(1, 0, 0)$ to $(0, 0, 0)$ and then back again to $(1, 0, 0)$.
This is what backtracking on itself means; note how $f'(0) = (0, 0, 0)$.
Let the relation R = {(n, m) | n, m ∈ ℤ, ⌊n/4⌋ = ⌊m/4⌋}. is any of the set below a correct equivalence class of R? A) {2, 4, 6, 8}. B) {1, 3, 5, 7}. C) {4, 5, 6, 7}. D) {1, 2, 3, 4}.
@BalarkaSen I quoted Darboux because it seems like backwarding will reverse the direction of tangent, hence, component-wise, we can apply Darboux. Where am I wrong? (Thanks for quoting Rolle's btw)
How do I even begin to understand $\Bbb Q(\zeta_n)/\Bbb Q$? Start by understanding what the minimal polynomial for $\zeta_n$, maybe? The $n$-th cyclotomic polynomial of whatever it is called.
All the automorphisms should send $\zeta_n$ to $\zeta_n^m$ where $(n, m) = 1$, preservation of order, etc
Also the proof of that $\Bbb Z[\zeta_p] = \mathcal{O}_{\Bbb Q(\zeta_p)}$ thing is a series of magic tricks from what I gathered by attending a lecture on an ANT class
@BalarkaSen, it seems to me that the issue is that even though Rolle guarantees that there is a point at which derivative of each component vanishes, but they may be distinct points for different components.
@Silent but you can "zero in" on a common point where derivatives of all three component vanishes because the value of $f$ matches arbitrarily close to the point where the curve turns and starts backtracking on itself. that's why i told you to make it mathematically precise what you want "backtracking" to mean
$\phi:[a,b]\to\Bbb R^n$ with $c,d\in(a,b)$ and $\phi(d)\in\phi[a,c)$. So $\phi(d)=\phi(x)$ for some $x\in [a,c)$, and $\phi$ has this property that $\phi(t(s))=\phi(c-s)$ for $s\in[c,d]$ where $t:[c,d]\to\Bbb R$ is a continuous function. Is that correct way of defining backtracking?
No it's just that if any of the questions ive posted that have not been answered are seen as basic by someone then obviously I want that person to answer them, that's only fair,right?
When a student asks me a question which I think they have not really thought about, I usually try to encourage them to look into answering it themselves.
I think that is fairest in those particular cases.
It would be unfair to deprive them of the learning experience that comes with struggling with their own questions.
you suggested that Ted is able to easily answer my questions, but does not do so because he doesn't want to deprive me of the learning experience, yes?
And to compliment this process, you should perhaps ask for hints if you know the question has a known solution, or ask how you could approach a question that you are unsure has an answer.
This way you exhibit a willingness to learn properly (through working yourself, perhaps with some help from others) and TedE would exhibit a willingness to teach properly (through encouraging independence and helping when you actually need it).
@Silent Looks a little clunky to me. Would it be more accurate to say it's a curve $\phi : I \to \Bbb R^n$ such that you can restrict to a subinterval $[a, b] \subset I$ with a point $c \in (a, b)$ such that exist reparametrizations $\gamma_1, \gamma_2 : [0, 1] \to [a, c], [c, b]$ such that $\phi(\gamma_1(t)) = \phi(\gamma_2(1-t))$?
@ÍgjøgnumMeg "I feel salty because I had too much salt with my morning sandwich"