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00:00
@MarianoSuárezAlvarez Hola/Hello
=P
@BenjaLim Are you around?
I'm dealing with $Y \subset B$ then $ Y \supset f(f^{-1}(Y))$ now.
I think words might be better to prove both.
Let $f: A \to B$, $X \subset A$. We have that $f(X) = \{f(x) \in B : x \in X\}$.
Since $f$ is not assumed to be one-one, then $f^{-1}(f(X))$ is composed by precisely those $x \in X$, and other $x \in A$ but $\notin X$ such that $f(x) =y$, so that at least one element of $f^{-1}(f(X))$ is not in $X$, so that $X \subset f^{-1}(f(X))$
@JasperLoy Am I making sense there?
@anon ?
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I did not follow just now, but why do you say that f is not injective?
@JasperLoy I'm not saing it is not. I'm saying it can be, or not.
Actually, I should be writing $X \subseteq f^{-1}(f(X))$
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Oh, then you don't have to mention it at all.
@JasperLoy Well, I guess, but my point is the preimage operation adds points that weren't there.
Is the proof viable?¿
@JasperLoy Listen to this, bro
user19161
00:19
@PeterTamaroff Your sentence here is difficult to parse. First you have not defined y. And you can't be sure there is "at least one element" there.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I think you get the idea but cna't express yourself properly.
@JasperLoy Let me tweak it.
"It is not even false!"
Assume $f$ is not one-one, then $f^{-1}(f(X))$ is composed by precisely those $x∈X$, and other $x∈A$ but $∉X$ such that $f(x)=y$ for some $y \in B$, so that there is at least one element of$f^{-1}(f(X))$ is not in $X$, so that $X⊂f^{-1}(f(X))$
@JonasTeuwen ?¿
@PeterTamaroff What is that for gibberish? If it is not one-to-one we have distinct $x, y$ such that $f(x) = f(y)$. Done.
00:25
@JonasTeuwen Just remember I'm learning.
Yes, I know. Don't see it as a statement with any emotional value.
I am writing down how I see it.
As I want you to know that you should think about what it means, not just about the literal definition.
And this is what it means.
Your statement is so full of symbols, but I think it is correct. I wonder if you will have an easy time manipulating it.
@JonasTeuwen OK. Yes, I understand what it means. The preimage operations "adds" extra elements.
Remember, the definitions are usually just to encode some reasonable simple mathematical concept rigorously.
Which can look quite scary but means nothing.
Whilst if $f$ is one-one the inverse image returns to the original set $X$.
Yes, but that is still "gibberish".
It means... That if you have two distinct points, they will not get mapped to the same element.
Remember, I am using implicitly "for all distinct elements".
So that statement for something not being injective is that there just exists two distinct elements that map to the same element.
00:29
@JonasTeuwen How would you say it? I'm talking about a subset $X$ of $A$, its image $f(X)$ and the preimage of this. I'm saying that if $f$ is not $1-1$ the preimage of the image adds elements that weren't in $X$ originally.
How is that gibberish?
The existence of those two elements refute the injectivity as this is for all.
user19161
@JonasTeuwen Actually his statement is still wrong.
@JasperLoy Perhaps, I did not completely read it because it is way too complicated for something so simple.
@PeterTamaroff It is gibberish because you use jargon where it not necessary.
@JonasTeuwen "Communication using various noises, illegitimate words, nonsense or sounds. "
Yes, it is an exaggeration.
A hyperbole, so to speak :-).
00:31
@JonasTeuwen How would you say it? I give up.
user19161
OK @peter I am confused now. You are trying to prove that the preimage of the image possibly adds extra stuff right?
@PeterTamaroff I have already done so.
Okay, right so you have $f: X \to f[X]$ with some slight abuse of notation (perhaps it can be made okay).
@JasperLoy I'm trying to prove that $X \subset f^{-1}(f(X))$ for any $f:A\to B$, $X \subset A$.
So, if we have a point $y$ in $f[X]$ this means that there is an $x$ such that $f(x) = y$.
@JonasTeuwen Yes.
00:34
And that $x \in X$. Perhaps there are multiple ones. If we have injectivity we don't.
@JonasTeuwen Right,
That is what I'm saying.
Go on, please.
So, I didn't think about any definition, just what it means.
So, what do you want to prove?
@JonasTeuwen See what I wrote to Jasper there.
Okay.
So $f[X]$ are all the points mapped from $X$ to the codomain.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff OK. This is what I will write. Let $x\in X$. Then $f(x)\in f(X), so that x\in f^{-1}(f(X))$. Done.
00:35
Excellent, so basically we don't care about surjectivity so we can redefine our function so that it is: $f: X \to f[X]$.
Now, we know that if we take those points back from the "range" (by surjectivity) we should get the whole of $X$ if $f$ is injective.
Right? As the preimage would be unique (injectivity).
So, what if it isn't unique? So, the function is not injective?
That means that it is possible that the preimage actually maps back to several elements.
@JonasTeuwen Then more elements are added.
@JasperLoy Why does the last follow?
Yes, but in $f[X]$ there are only elements that come from $X$ itself, but if the function is not injective it is actually possible that there are also points outside.
But if $X$ is the complete domain then of course not.
(deleted because it was not even wrong what I said 8-))
user19161
@PeterTamaroff From the definition of the preimage.
@PeterTamaroff My point is: think intuitively, not just manipulate symbols. Or just try to, I know it is hard for new things.
@JonasTeuwen I knew why it was true. I couldn't explain it well it seems , I don't know.
00:40
Note that I made too many steps as to restrict the codomain.
This is quite common: try to make it easier by removing irrelevant things.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Could it be because of your English as well?
@PeterTamaroff Yes, new concept. It is normal.
@JasperLoy I don't think so. My english is OK.
But don't fall into the "rigorousity trap".
user19161
@PeterTamaroff You just need to read more then. For a first year student you are doing fine.
00:41
Mathematics is not about being rigorous.
@JasperLoy I'm not in first year yet.
user19161
@JonasTeuwen This should be starred.
(But you should strive for a good level of rigor in the result).
@JasperLoy Go ahead 8-).
@JonasTeuwen Yes, you're right.
user19161
I think reading good mathematical exposition helps @pet.
00:43
Good :-). So this means, just mess with things, don't worry too much about the definitions as long as what you write down does have these properties!
@JasperLoy The thing is now I have to prove that if $\{ X_\alpha \}_{\alpha \in I}$ is an indexed family of subsets of $A$, analogous relations hold.
So I guess I could use some symbols, maybe? Or just explain it with words. I'm starting to like words more.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Whether you use words or symbols, the important thing is to write it correctly. What you initially wrote, I can point out various mistakes in it.
@PeterTamaroff Pretty much the same, just more messy.
(Try if you can apply the thing you just proved! Don't immediately try to copy the argument)
@JasperLoy Please do.
user19161
Paul Halmos is a master of using words.
00:46
@JasperLoy I'm reading Bert Mendelson's book. It is good!
@JasperLoy Could you tell me about the mistakes?
I give away the information it took me years to collect (concerning good practices) 8-)).
@JonasTeuwen That is the essence of investigation, isn't it?
Yes, but nobody told me these things I've told you. Or maybe they did and I didn't listen. I wish I did!
@JonasTeuwen I will remember them, then!
I didn't try to give you the argument "for free", but I hope you get the idea how I got it?
00:49
@JonasTeuwen Yeah, I do. I'm good at overly complicating things, however.
Not by manipulating the definitions but by manipulating what they mean.
Yes, but that is common, I mean, you don't yet fully grasp the definition so the only thing you can do is manipulate it.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff One mistake here is that you should use $y\in f(X)$ and not $y\in B$. Another mistake is that even if $f$ were not injective as you assumed, the choice of $X$ may not give you the at least one extra element you hope to find. Anyway, that proof is convoluted and now you know what to write as I have shown.
@JasperLoy And a similar short proof would work for $Y \supset f(f^{-1}(Y))$ right?
user19161
@JonasTeuwen Yes, in the same way the reflection of the moon in the water is not the moon itself. Symbols are just a representation of the actual idea.
Yes, it is like a No Shit Sherlock remark, but it has to be made...
Captain Obvious, or whatever.
00:53
@JonasTeuwen lol
@JasperLoy I guess I should learn how to produce proofs of inclusion in general.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff It should be short too as well. You can try it.
@JasperLoy For example, inclusion proofs usually start with "pick an $x$ in $X$",
and they prove a statement about that element in particular
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Right. To prove that a set is a subset of another, we prove that any element of the first is an element of the second.
@JasperLoy Listen to this song youtube.com/watch?v=bWTuKd2lTo4
I think you'll like it. I think I linked to the full album before, but I like that song in particular.
@JasperLoy This is so trivial I find no sense in proving it.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Do you listen to music when you are doing math? For me, I don't unless it is say background music in a cafe.
01:07
@JasperLoy I usually do. It helps me forget about my surroundings.
user19161
Also there are some things that seem trivial but are not trivial or true at all. For example, if f is continuous on A and continuous on B, it need not be continuous on the union of A and B @peter.
@JasperLoy Because cusps could appear?
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Actually I omitted some detail there. Just think of the function with a point of discontinuity on an interval. Then consider the restriction of the function on each of the two sides of the interval. The restrictions are continuous in this case.
@JasperLoy And what union are you considering?
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Union of the two sides of the interval to make the whole interval.
01:17
@JasperLoy You're not being coherent. Say the function is defind on $(a,b)$ and there is a $ c \in (a,b)$ where $f$ is discontinuous.
Then $f$ is certainly continous on $(a,c)$ and $(c,b)$, and in $(a,c)\cup (c,b)$ too.
Where are people learning to write generators of ideals like $\langle x, y\rangle$ instead of $(x, y)$?
@DylanMoreland I write spanning sets (systems of generators) as $<x_1,\dots,x_n>$
Same for a basis.
well, wait, that still doesn't make it sensible
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Sorry I mean for instance, if we define $f(x)=0$ if $x<0$ and $g(x)=1$ if $x\geq 0$, then f and g are continous on their domains. But then if we take the value of $h(x)$ to be $f(x)$ for $x<0$ and $g(x)$ for $x\geq 0$, then h is not continuous on $R$.
@JasperLoy For $Y \supset f(f^{-1}(Y))$ I should start with "Let $y \in f(f^{-1}(Y))$" right?
@JasperLoy Oh, sure.
user19161
01:25
@PeterTamaroff That's the general principle but sometimes general principles fail. You may try and see if you can continue.
@JasperLoy I'm letting myself down today. Fuck me.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Then never mind, go to sleep first.
@JasperLoy Maybe I should.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes, good night!
But I'm a little upset this is troubling me.
user19161
01:29
@PeterTamaroff OK let me write it out for you now.
user19161
Let $y\in f(f^{-1}(Y))$. Then $y=f(x)$ for some $x\in f^{-1}(Y)$, so that $y\in Y$. Done.
user19161
Sometimes while trying to prove these silly things, one gets confused.
@JasperLoy "...so that $y \in Y$" follows from the fact that $y=f(x)$ and $x \in f^{-1}(Y)$ right?
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes, again using the definition of the preimage.
user19161
The proof looks quite silly actually!
01:37
@JasperLoy Yes I know!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
user19161
@PeterTamaroff OK now you may go to sleep!
@JasperLoy It is not even midnight,
@JasperLoy I have a lot of work to do. =D
user19161
@PeterTamaroff OK then off you go to do your stuff.
@JasperLoy I'm on it. I come and ask for help sometimes.
As @anon made me see some days ago, I have to work on my logic, and set theory.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff I keep thinking pronouncing his name like an Indian name: Ah-non. Haha!
01:41
@JasperLoy I'm was convinced "Anon" was a name. It is, actually.
Do you like your name?
user19161
There are names Anand and Ananda as well.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes, I do.
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Do you like yours?
Good night guys.
user19161
@JonasTeuwen Good night bro.
01:51
@JasperLoy I'm indifferent. I think any name I'd get I'd find one I like better.
Though my middle name is cool in Russian "Nikolai"
user19161
Oh you look very cute in that photo @peter!
@JasperLoy In what photo?
(Oh that one?)
The Jimmi Hendrix one?
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes, that's the only one I saw...
@JasperLoy Hahaha but I thought you had seen it already!
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes but I had not remarked on it, and I also love to make random remarks sometimes.
01:56
@JasperLoy Hahaha, well, thanks.
It is funny you thought the sculpture was real.
Though that one is particularily well achieved.
And the pic is not very good.
02:09
Ok, now I have to prove that if $f$ is one one then $X=f^{-1}(f(X))$ which means I have to prove inclusion both ways,
I have one already.
So I need to show that $X \supset f^{-1}(f(X))$
How about this. Suppose there is an $x\in f^{-1}(f(X))$ that is $\not\in X$. Derive a contradiction.
@anon Then $f(x) = f(y)$ but $ x \neq y$?
mmhmm
(for some $x,y$ in there)
@anon I understand that is the case, but I can't prove it.
for some $y$. $x$ is given.
02:15
That is what is going on today with me.
NEIGHBORHOOD DOGS. STOP BARKING AT THE FIREWORKS.
brb
@anon Don't do anything crazy!!!
@anon i'm not sure they participate in MSE.chat
@PeterTamaroff i see you're learning set theory
@Eugene Well, not really. I'm studying from Rudin, and using an introductory book of topology as a complement, and before relations come functions.
And I found myself unable to prove some seemingly trivial stuff.
Which was a little upsetting.
lol, book of topology as a complement
topology without tears is nice
(nice and free)
02:31
@anon It is introductory. I'm using it just for metric spaces, open sets, closed sets, limit points, and stuff.
I was loling at the pun.
@PeterTamaroff yes this is set theory.
man, weird stuff happens without choice
@PeterTamaroff trivial stuff is always harder to prove
@anon Hahhaha now I follow you.
Though Rudin uses $A^c$ and Mendelson uses $C(A)$
02:33
@anon It's a rough week for dogs. I don't really blame them for being alarmed by loud explosions.
@DylanMoreland Just sedate them for a while.
@anon weird stuff happens with choice too banach-tarski cough cough
@PeterTamaroff The book I taught out of last term used a prime $'$ for complements. It was horrible.
yes that's true
user19161
@Eugene You are so funny sir.
02:34
@DylanMoreland The horror.
@JasperLoy PLEASE, DON'T.
@PeterTamaroff Well, everything's relative.
i guess without choice we would lose a lot though
@DylanMoreland Though it is cool to use $A^c$ since it gives out that the complement operation is idempotent.
user19161
@DylanMoreland Isn't that fairly standard?
i like my maximal ideals.
02:36
@JasperLoy The first I'd seen of it.
are quotients of number fields' rings of integers by ideals supposed to be cyclic?
@JasperLoy definitely not
@PeterTamaroff Does it? How so?
user19161
@Eugene Oh I guess that's because I have read over 9000 books.
:5219366$ (A^c)^c=A$?
02:37
@PeterTamaroff you could say the same for ' notation: $A''=A$
@JasperLoy ?
@PeterTamaroff I guess I don't see how the notation helps you remember that. You are, of course, correct.
$(A^c)^c$ ought to be $A^{2c}$.
So you just have to remember that $2c = 0$.
02:38
@MarkDominus I makes no sense to write that.
@JasperLoy Showing off your power level. Damn.
@anon this meme again...
@anon Not always, I don't think.
wait, you know about dbz, surely you know this meme
user19161
@anon I learnt the meme from the ELU room a few months ago.
02:39
@anon yes i do. i just didn't connect the two. plus he wasn't crushing a scouter when he said it so it's harder to tell.
@anon English is the only language in which they said 9000
In Spanish they said 8000
user19161
@PeterTamaroff That is so weird.
I know. I can't stand the Japanese dub, though. In the English one they all have fittingly gravelly, hypermasculine voices :P
@anon i can't stand the cartoon. it takes like 5 episodes to charge up...
and all the different angles they have to show it from...
took many an episode for namek to blow up in 5 minutes like freiza said it would..
02:41
@anon lol! i remember that!!
it came out in the US when I was a kid so nothing really bothered me. 'cept maybe aliens all speaking English.
i think i'm starting to like my elliptic curves to be over $\Bbb Q$ now...
@anon well they were bilingual...
i'm working to learn what an elliptic curve looks like over a ring and it sure don't look pretty
@anon piccolo still spoke namek once in awhile
user19161
@Eugene Hahaha, an elliptic curve looks like a curve and a ring looks like a wedding ring silly!
@JasperLoy oh wow. all that time i wasted studying
user19161
@Eugene What text are you using? Milne? Knapp?
02:51
@JasperLoy for what?
user19161
@Eugene Elliptic curves.
@JasperLoy milne doesn't even talk about them over general number fields though right? his "book" is tailored towards proving FLT
@JasperLoy i'm using silverman
@JasperLoy his book with cornell talks about them over schemes
@JasperLoy schemes look like the coyote trying to kill the roadrunner
user19161
@Eugene Yeah, you are full of schemes too I see.
hold on. brb. steaming a char siew pao.
03:06
@JasperLoy Have you seen how anon suggested to prove that $X=f^{-1}(f(X))$?
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yes I saw it.
I understand that means that $f(x)=f(y)$ for some $y$ but $x \neq y$ . But I can't prove it, again.
I'm trying now.
In fact, I'm lying in saing I can't.
I haven't tried.
I'll give it a shot and get back to you.
$u\in f(W)\iff \exists w\in W: f(w)=u$
user19161
@PeterTamaroff Yeah, you should not do math when tired, not productive. I am going to sleep now.
$u\in f^{-1}(M)\iff f(u)\in M$
03:14
@anon Thaks. I like symbols much better.
Words sometimes help but they tend to confuse me.
I usually write $f(X) = \{ f(x) \in B : x \in X\}$ but your writing is clearer.
Thus $x\in f^{-1}(f(X))\iff f(x)\in f(X)\iff \exists y\in X:f(y)=f(x)$. But $f$ is injective, so $y=x$. But this implies $x\in X$; hence $f^{-1}(f(X))\subseteq X$.
@anon Yeah, that's better.
One thing.
I hope you don't "kill me" because of this
sharpens knife
$\subseteq$ means "a subset or equal to"?
yes
or just "a subset" if you understand that subsets can be improper (ie equal)
03:17
@anon Then it suffices to go the other direction now.
@anon Yeah, that's why I asked.
@anon Have you seen this?
nope
@anon I just can't understand why would one publish that without checking the formula like Robert Israel did.
Um, is that supposed to be the multiplicative or functional inverse of $\zeta$ in the paper?
@anon Multiplicative inverse.
seriously, who writes $\zeta^{-1}(s)$ for $\zeta(s)^{-1}$? Also lol @ the referee comments.
03:31
Wait. Maybe the OP wrote it wrong.
@anon Yeah, I will edit the question accordingly.
@anon Hhaha yes
@PeterTamaroff note that $\zeta^{-1}(s)$ is the one in the paper
(so, not Jose's fault)
@anon Yeah. I think that should be then the functional inverse.
Not the multplicative inverse as José wrote.
@anon $\zeta^{-1}(z)$ means $(\zeta(z))^{-1}$?
@FrankScience it shouldn't, but I believe that's what the author intended by it
@PeterTamaroff I don't think so. Take a guess as to why $0<Re(s)<1/2$ is stipulated.
@anon I saw $f^m(x)=(f(x))^m$ only when $f=\sin,\cos,\tan,\sinh,\cosh,\tanh$.
03:37
@anon I see.
@FrankScience not when $m=-1$ :)
@anon Hehehe true.
@JasperLoy ok i'm back
@anon $\tan^{-1}(x)$ is somewhat ambiguous with $\arctan$, but in math it seems that $\arctan$ is more conventional.
somewhat ambiguous? in my experience it's almost universally used as arctan. unless you mean ambiguous to someone not already familiar with the conventions (in which case the conventions would naturally seem counterintuitive)
03:40
@anon I guess I can procede by contradiction to prove $Y=f(f^{-1}(Y))$ when $f$ is onto, too.
Well, in my high-school, when we are working on physics, we can use $\tan^{-1}(x)$, but in math, the notation shall be avoided.
@FrankScience I preferer $\arctan$ for aesthetics motives only.
and some notation like $\DeclareMathOperator{\tg}{tg}\tg$ should be avoided.
@FrankScience why?
You can use \operatorname{tg}
@PeterTamaroff Otherwise we would get $0$ score.
03:43
@FrankScience I'm mean why you should avoid it, not what the punishment is for not doing so.
@PeterTamaroff For the wrong notation.
@FrankScience $\operatorname{tg}$ also means "tangent".
In fact it is used in Argentina for example.
@PeterTamaroff Many years ago it was commonly used here, but the revolution of education changed it.
@FrankScience I think it is good to have conventions, but the measure seems drastic.
@anon I don't know if I should start with "suppose $y \in Y$ but $y \notin f(f^{-1}(Y))$" or "suppose $y \notin Y$ but $y \in f(f^{-1}(Y))$"
@PeterTamaroff Oh, I cannot make sure. It might be a caution from teacher, not the measure.
03:52
@PeterTamaroff find out which containment is trivial, then pick the one that contradicts the nontrivial contaiment
@PeterTamaroff Is there any condition constrainting $f$?
@anon The trivial containment was $Y \supset f(f^{-1}(Y))$
@FrankScience surjectivity
@FrankScience It is onto.
@anon I should go with the first one.
yes
03:55
@anon In fact I started writing it out with that one and flinched.
$f^{-1}(y)=\{x:f(x)=y\}$
@FrankScience Yes.
$f(f^{-1}(y))=\{f(x):f(x)=y\}$
@FrankScience You should be explicit about the underlying sets.
$f^{-1}(Y)=\{x:f(x)\in Y\}$
03:58
Oh, you were using values, sorry.
Seems short: "Suppose $y \in Y$ but $y \notin f(f^{-1}(Y))$. Then $ \not \exists x \in f^{-1}(Y) :f(x)=y$.
$f(X)=\{f(x):x\in X\}$?

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