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17:01
Go back to where we were before. We had five ways to pick the location of the 4. We then needed to pick the location of the two 2's from the four remaining rolls.
How many ways are there to pick two positions out of four?
$\binom{5}{1} \cdot \binom{4}{2} \cdot$ is the probility so far, right? @Semiclassical
It's not the probability. But it is the number of rolls of the form 422xy up to permutation, and that's enough.
now we use the fact that for each such roll, the probability is (1/6)^3*(4/6)^2
And since each such roll is exclusive---e.g. if you roll 422xy then you haven't rolled 242xy or anythign else---you just add up all of those probabilities
so that's a probability of (1/6)^3*(4/6)^2 for each of the $\binom{5}{1}\binom{4}{2}$ exclusive ways of get a useful roll
Can you put that together to get the final probability?
So the probability is $\binom{5}{1} \cdot \binom{4}{2} \cdot \cdot (1/6)^3*(4/6)^2 * 4^2$ , right? @Semiclassical
Where is the 4^2 coming from?
the results of the other two rounds where we do not get 2 or 4
or am I wrong?
17:11
I think that's redundant in here, since you're already incorporating that into the (4/6)^2 factor
Alternatively, you could think of it like this. There are $\binom{5}{1}\binom{4}{2}4^2$ ways to get a roll of the form 422xy up to permutation
Ah I see... $binom{5}{1} \cdot \binom{4}{2} \cdot \cdot (1/6)^3*(4/6)^2$ is the probality , right?
But, having specified the outcomes of the other two dice rolls, the probability is no longer (1/6)^3(4/6)^2. instead, it's just (1/6)^5 since each dice roll would have to be as you've specified
right
That's easy enough to multiply out
@Evinda So what do you get for the final result?
I am a little confused right now why $\binom{5}{1} \cdot \binom{4}{2} \cdot$ is the number of rolls of the form 422xy up to permutation :/
Because there's 5 choices for where the 4 is and 4-choose-2 choices for where the 2's are. (I'm not assuming anything about the x and y.)
However, my own way of working this out would be a bit different.
There are 6^5=7776 ways of rolling 5 dice in sequence.
If we want to create a dice roll with exactly two 2's and exactly one 4, then: there's 5 possible locations for the 5 and 4-choose-2 = 6 locations for the 2's. For the remaining 2 dice rolls, there's 4 choices each. So there are 5*6*4*4=480 ways to get exactly two 2's and exactly one 4.
So the probability is 480/7776, which is equivalent to what you wrote above.
17:31
That's a better approach... Thank you very much... I got it :) @Semiclassical
hello
I drew the effect of a matrix operation in $\mathbb{R}^2$.
\begin{bmatrix}

2 & -1 \\

2 & 3
\end{bmatrix}
is it good?
17:50
You might want to draw the preimage in a lighter color so it's clear why you're drawing (1,5)
Underneath the image
Because that's what you meant by the effect of an operation, right? You mean the effect on the unit square?
Oh it is there
I didn't notice it
yeah
are you on mobile ?
Indeed
Hi @Ted!
and @Balarka
Heya @Mathein :)
Hi @Mathein!
@Ted!
17:57
hi, a @Balarka and @GFauxPas and @Subhasis.
I'd mark (1,1) because you're plotting T(1,1) too
hi @Ted ,
To show both
Hi Ted
Hi @BalarkaSen
hey @Subhasis
17:57
@SubhasisBiswas: It's fine not to label every single point :)
Hi @MatheinBoulomenos :D
@MatheinBoulomenos What have you been upto
Good to see you again around these parts, @Mathein :)
:)_ is a nice smiley
@BalarkaSen I'm taking a break for a bit
17:58
Nah, it requires a subscript (maybe it's a new tangent functor).
I wasn't doing that well
Right but if he's gonna map 3 points I'd stylistically prefer to show the preimage of 3 points. I guess it might be redundant
Hi @Subhasis
Really, we're mapping the square formed by the unit basis vectors to the parallelogram.
But in any event it's correct
17:59
@MatheinBoulomenos Sorry to hear. Overworking?
Good to chill out once in a while
@Balarka possibly, yeah
Just don't pick up Balarka's evil smoking habits.

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