Interested in the following function:
$$ \Psi(s)=\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{\pi(n)^s}, $$
where $\pi(n)$ is the prime counting function.
When $s=2$ the sum becomes the following:
$$ \Psi(2)=\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac{1}{\pi(n)^2}=1+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{2^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1}{3^2}+\frac{1...
Consider a random binary string where each bit can be set to 1 with probability $p$.
Let $Z[x,y]$ denote the number of arrangements of a binary string of length $x$ and the $x$-th bit is set to 1. Moreover, $y$ bits are set 1 including the $x$-th bit and there are no runs of $k$ consecutive zer...
The field $\overline F$ is called an algebraic closure of $F$ if $\overline F$ is algebraic over $F$ and if every polynomial $f(x)\in F[x]$ splits completely over $\overline F$.
Why in def of algebraic closure, do we need $\overline F$ is algebraic over $F$? That is, if we remove '$\overline F$ is algebraic over $F$' condition from def of algebraic closure, do we get a different result?
Consider an observer located at radius $r_o$ from a Schwarzschild black hole of radius $r_s$. The observer may be inside the event horizon ($r_o < r_s$).
Suppose the observer receives a light ray from a direction which is at angle $\alpha$ with respect to the radial direction, which points outwa...
@AlessandroCodenotti That is a poor example, as the algebraic closure of the latter is just $\mathbb{C}$ again (assuming choice). But starting with $\overline{\mathbb{Q}}$ instead and comparing to $\mathbb{C}$ works.
Seems like everyone is posting character formulas for simple modules of algebraic groups in positive characteristic on arXiv these days. At least 3 papers with that theme the past 2 months.
Also, I have a definition that says that a ring is a UFD if every element can be written as a product of irreducibles which is unique up units and reordering. It doesn't say anything about this factorization being finite in length. Is that often part of the definition or attained from the definition (I don't see how it could be the latter).
It is actually a bit of a miracle that the structures we are most used to (i.e. the reals) have enough structure to make sense of all of these amazing things from calculus
and of course schemes being a mathematical thing makes that sentence even more true
Well, that then becomes a chicken and the egg question. Did we have the reals first and simplify from them to more abstract concepts or did we have the abstract concepts first and build them up to the idea of the reals.
I still am kind of amazed that any two rationals can be arbitrarily close to one another yet there will always be more reals between them than there are rationals.
I've been told that the rational numbers from zero to one form a countable infinity, while the irrational ones form an uncountable infinity, which is in some sense "larger". But how could that be? There is always a rational between two irrationals, and always an irrational between two rationals, ...
I was watching this lecture, and in reference to above screenshot, the professor there says: $\frac1{1+x^2}$ has a singularity at $i$ and at $-i$, and power series expansions are limits of polynomials, and limits of polynomials can never give us a singularity and then keep going on the other side.
On page 149 Hatcher introduces the Mayer-Vietoris sequence, along with two maps $\Phi : H_n(A \cap B) \to H_n(A) \oplus H_n(B)$ and $\Psi : H_n(A) \oplus H_n(B) \to H_n(X)$. I've searched through the book, but I couldn't find the definitions of these two maps. Does anyone know how to define them or where there definition appears in Hatcher's book?
suppose $\sum a_n z_0^n = L$, so $a_n z_0^n \to 0$, so $|a_n z_0^n| < \dfrac12$ for sufficiently large $n$, so $|a_n z^n| = |a_n z_0^n| \left(\left|\dfrac{z_0}{z}\right|\right)^n < \dfrac12 \left(\left|\dfrac{z_0}{z}\right|\right)^n$, so $a_n z^n$ is absolutely summable, so $a_n z^n$ is summable
Let $g : [0,\frac{ 1} {2} ] → \mathbb R$ be a continuous function. Define $g_n : [0,\frac{ 1} {2} ] → \mathbb R$ by $g_1 = g$ and $g_{n+1}(t) = \int_0^t g_n(s) ds,$ for all $n ≥ 1.$ Show that $lim_{n→∞} n!g_n(t) = 0,$ for all $t ∈ [0,\frac{1}{2}]$ .
Can you give some hint?
My attempt:- $t\in [0,1/2]$ Consider the sequence $a_n(t)=n!g_n(t)$
If $\lim_{n\to \infty} \frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}<1$, then it converges to zero.
I have a bilinear functional that is bounded from below
I try to approximate the minimum by a ansatz-function that is a linear combination
of any independent functions of the proper function space
I now obtain an expression that is bilinear in the coeffcients
using the stationarity condition (all derivaties of the functional w.r.t the coefficients = 0)
I get a set of $n$ equations with the $n$ the number of coefficients
a set of n linear homogeneus equations in the $n$ coefficients
Now instead of "directly attempting to solve" the equations for the coefficients I rather look at the secular determinant that should be zero, otherwise no non trivial solution exists
This "characteristic polynomial" directly yields all permissible approximation values for the functional from my linear ansatz.
Avoiding the neccessity to solve for the coefficients.
I have problems now to formulated the question. But it strikes me that a direct solution of the equation can be circumvented and instead the values of the functional are directly obtained by using the condition that the derminant is zero.
I wonder if there is something deeper in the background, or so to say a more very general principle.
If $x$ is a prime number and a number $y$ exists which is the digit reverse of $x$ and is also a prime number, then there must exist an integer z in the mid way of $x, y$ , which is a palindrome and digitsum(z)=digitsum(x).
Primality doesn't look like it's relevant here---this should hold for any odd number $x$ and its digit reverse $y$, provided its digit reverse is also odd.
For example, 537 and 735 are obviously not prime, but 636---the midpoint between them---is a palindrome, and its digit sum is the same as that of 537.
Indeed, if both $x$ and $y$ are even, this also works. But it fails for numbers where one of $x,y$ is even and the other is odd, because then their average isn't an integer.
> Bekanntlich hat P. du Bois-Reymond zuerst die Existenz einer überall stetigen Funktion erwiesen, deren Fouriersche Reihe an einer Stelle divergiert. Herr H. A. Schwarz gab dann ein einfacheres Beispiel.
(Translation: It is well-known that Paul du Bois-Reymond was the first to demonstrate the existence of a continuous function with fourier series being divergent on a point. Afterwards, Hermann Amandus Schwarz gave an easier example.)
(Translation: It is well-known that Paul du Bois-Reymond was the first to demonstrate the existence of a continuous function with fourier series being divergent on a point. Afterwards, Hermann Amandus Schwarz gave an easier example.)
It's discussed very carefully (but no formula explicitly given) in my favorite introductory book on Fourier analysis. Körner's Fourier Analysis. See pp. 67-73. Right after that is Kolmogoroff's result that you can have an $L^1$ function whose Fourier series diverges everywhere!!