so $\frac{1}{2} e^{x}$ is the same as $e^{\frac{x}{2}}$ right? Is there a preferred way to write that or is anything okay?
Also I do not quite understand the procedure to do this, and it is not explicitly stated in the book Solve the differential equation $y' = x + y$ by making the substitution $u = x + y$
@leo Yeah. Pero me parece elegante como la tranformacion $x \mapsto z$ con $$x^n D^n = \mathcal D (\mathcal D-1)\cdots (\mathcal D-n+1) $$ la resuelve.
$$\frac{x^n}{n!} D^n = {\mathcal D \choose n}$$ :P
@leo Si, puede ser. Pero me encató. Igualmente, no tiene las consideraciones teoricas mas ligadas al algebra como me imagino se analiza en matematica pura.
Alberto Pedro Calderón (1920-1998), fue un relevante ingeniero y matemático argentino.
Calderón se destacó como investigador y docente en el campo de la matemática pura. Es conocido por sus trabajos sobre la teoría de las ecuaciones diferenciales en derivadas parciales y sobre los operadores definidos por
integrales singulares. Este concepto su vez ha dado origen a la actual
teoría de operadores pseudo diferenciales. También son importantes sus trabajos sobre la interpolación de operadores y sobre los problemas inversos. Las
técnicas desarrolladas por Calderón son de importancia fundame...
@tb Even though you are on break, I thought you might want to look at this question. You are after all, the highest ranking answerer for inversive-geometry :-)
Well you're learning some number theory now. I think that's a good avenue for understanding this sort of thing. Kummer and Dedekind invented these concepts to try to deal with rings of algebraic integers.
And in Dedekind domains, which is what those rings are, the analogy is really tight. Every ideal factors into products of prime ideals. And you have g.c.ds of ideals and all this stuff.
But in general... I mean as a dumb example you have in $\mathbf C[x, y, z]$ ideals $(xy)$ and $(xz)$. So the g.c.d. of those elements is $x$, but I don't think that's even in the ideal that those two elements generate.
The profinite completion of the integers can be realized as a direct product of the p-adic integers. I wonder if this can be generalized. Is any inverse limit (indexed by a countable, locally finite poset I) decomposable as a product of inverse limits (over linearly ordered subposets of I)?
I was thinking linearly ordered meant locally finite for some reason when I asked the question
@DylanMoreland For that approach I'm worried might be too inevitably tied to the objects' structure in the system, which we don't have access to in general.
What I was thinking is that we can "cut out" linearly ordered posets from the index set, throw away scraps without changing the limit, and then use some kind of inductive reasoning on this process.
After reading some of keith conrad's group theory notes, whenever I see the letters "xkcd" I'm going to think it's some kind of edgy alter ego of KCd.
some user named Frank Science made a couple of edit suggestions (still pending) with these improvements. the only other thing touched was ln-->\ln (which is an improvement, but I'm not sure if I should decide it's "substantial" enough to approve..)
Jasper Loy swooped in and told Jordan off after the ban, so I assume the flag hit people from other chatrooms and they're the ones who made the decision.
I always get flags from the Gaming chatroom for example.
And it's always the same user that gets flagged ...
Wikipedia: Learned helplessness can also be a motivational problem. Individuals who have failed at tasks in the past conclude erroneously that they are incapable of improving their performance. This might set children behind in academic subjects and dampen their social skills.
@J.M. I have a question I'm thinking about asking on main. What do you think? That is, given a map $f:M_n(k)\to k$ (with $k$ some field) such that $f(AB)=f(A)f(B)$ for all matrices $A$ and $B$, is it necessarily the case that $f$ factors through the determinant, i.e. does there exist a multiplicative map $g:k\to k$ such that $f=g\circ\det\,$?
If you know the value of $f(A)$ for matrices of row operations and for upper triangular matrices, the map $f$ id determined uniquely by the choice of these values, right?
@anon IMO it seems interesting. I would say it is worth posting a question on main.
IIRC Strang defines determinant by listing a few properties and than saying that these properties define determinant uniquely. So I was thinking perhaps something along the lines could be useful, if we are trying to prove this.
@MartinSleziak I'd been reading The Psychology of Everyday Things again, and those words just stuck out from the section I was reading on why people feel helpless about using complicated devices. Which is what math is to a number of people, I guess.
@anon Yes, sounds like a good one. I don't have an answer offhand.
if $Q$ is a nilpotent matrix, i.e. $Q^2 = 0$, and $S$ is another matrix (but invertible), if $QS^{-k}Q = 0$, does it follow that $k$ can be any integer?
@JaydonZhao Do you mean (a) that if $QS^{-k}Q=0$ for some $k$, then $QS^nQ=0$ for all $n$, or (b) that just knowing that $QS^{-k}Q=0$, it's impossible to determine what $k$ can or can't be?
@experimentX Expand $u/(1+u)^2$ in a power series (with $u=e^x$), use linearity to make it a sum of integrals, scale each integral so that you get Riemann zeta times a gamma function.
I would guess that - in a situation where neither $Q$ or $S$ are known - no alternative value for $k$ could be ruled out, but that's a gut feeling ...
@experimentX Erm, I forgot that won't work because of e^x being really big and all. :) You'll have to move it around so you get a convergent power series first.
further, if we were also given that $S^{-1}Q = QS^{-1}$ through a process of reforming $QS^{-k}Q$to $S^{-1}QS^{-k+1}Q$ until $-k+1 = -1$, where we have $S^{-k + 1}QS^{-1}Q = S^{-k}Q^2 = 0$
@anon Well, the more I try to refine it the further away I get from the intended meaning... until it becomes infinitely refined as to be dense in the reals ;-)
low-rep users receive +2 for suggested edits that are approved by higher-rep users. (this does not include Michael - we can make whatever edits we want freely with no incentive except badges and our names on others' posts) I don't remember what the specific threshold is.
what is ∫dx/x, ∫du/u, ∫dz/z, ∫da/a, and then, as the clincher, I'd ask about ∫d(cabin)/cabin. Some of them would grin amiably and shout out "log cabin", and they were surprised when I told them that I didn't agree. The right answer (as I learned when I was learning calculus) is "house-boat", "log cabin plus sea".