« first day (3110 days earlier)      last day (2205 days later) » 

00:00
Huh? How would you want to work with characteristic classes?
I guess you could instead define them to be elements of the cohomology of $BU$ or $BO$ but then you need to do some calculations.
Hatcher's vector bundle notes are reasonably geodesic.
00:13
Well I typically like to see things developed kind of with motivation.
Milnor likes to just throw it at you and show you cool stuff, which is good if I wanted to immediately work with them.
But I want to grok them
And then there's curvature and Chern's original definition of Chern classes using curvature ...
If $n = n_1 + ... + n_r$ is some partition of the positive integer $n$, why is it true that $\{1,...,n\} = \{1,...,n_1\} \cup \{n_1 +1,...,n_1 + n_2 \} \cup ... \cup \{n_1 + n_2 + .... n_{r-1} +1,....,n_1 + n_2 + ... + n_r \}$?
You can find this in lots of differential geometry and complex geometry books.
What do you mean, @user193319? You've just split the set up into $r$ (disjoint) subsets.
Hmm...I can see that they are disjoint...but it isn't clear to me that the two sets are equal...Perhaps there is something wrong with me.
As I always advise in here, write down simple examples.
00:17
@anakhro The motivation is what you can do with them, though.
@anakhro: In some sense, you can think of them as generalizations of the residue theorem and Gauss-Bonnet.
That is one type of motivation.
@TedShifrin do you know a book that goes about it this route? Or at least mentions this and expands on it?
'geometry of characteristic classes' by Morita does something with this but I don't remember if that book is too fancy.
Lots of them. Complex geometry books like Wells and Griffiths/Harris for starters. Chern. Kobayashi-Nomizu. The 2- or 3-volume book by the Canadians Greub, ....
Far too fancy. Don't read it.
00:21
Far too fancy to Morita?
@TedShifrin I think the goal is to find something that won't cause a panic attack. At least two on that list would, I think.
yes
LOL ...
Alright, so, given $L=\langle a,b,c\vert b^{-1}ab=c, ac=ca \rangle$. A homomorphism $f:L\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ given by $f(a)=f(c)=1$ and $f(b)=0$. Is this valid? If it is, one thing I think it demonstrates is that, in order for $\langle a\rangle$ to be normal, then $a=c$ must be true.
Kobayashi-Nomizu panic attack already occurred when I tried to learn what a manifold was in 3rd year.
@Rithaniel I feel like there's a disconnect here. You want to show that $a^n \neq c$ for any $n$. So you should choose a homomorphism so that $f(a^n) \neq f(c)$ for any $n$.
But your homomorphisms keep sending these things to the same element!
00:24
Thanks for the references though, Ted! I will have a look and find something that won't make my heart flutter too much.
Ah, I'm going the wrong direction
@anakhro Did you read Hatcher's notes?
I taught this stuff in various courses, @anakhro. If you're not going to bitch like @MikeM does, I can send you handwritten notes, but they're not full of the comments and details that I would make teaching.
No, I will have a look at those, too.
@TedShifrin I wouldn't mind handwritten notes if that isn't too much of a bother to send. Shall I email your email from your website?
00:51
Hmmm, actually it would probably be really useful to look into these relatively soon.
I need to write the intro to my thesis
And the linking number and that uses Chern classes
Okay, so I want to preserve the part of the structure where $b^{-1}ab=c$, but I don't have a good sense of what conjugation translates to in more general groups. I guess it only comes up in non-abelian groups and I don't have enough practice with those.
I liked looking at conjugation actions when I first learned about them.
So if you think of the conjugation action on the set of all subgroups of a group, then a neat thing is that "fixed points" are just normal subgroups.
@anakhro: Yeah, email me and I'll send you some stuff.
You have to get good at differential forms, though, for my notes :)
Well I guess we will see if I am good enough at forms!
1
Q: If $\text{Boundary}(A)\subseteq A.$, then $\overline A=A$?

Unknown xDefinition 1:- Let $(X,d)$ be a metric space. $A$ be a subset of $X$. Then $\text{Boundary}(A)=\{x\in X:$open ball centered at $x$ intersects both $A$ and $A^c\}$ Definition 2:- $\overline A=A\cup A'$, $A'$ is the set of all limit points of $A$. Using these two definitions My aim is to prove ...

In Jose Carlos sir's answer. He uses method of contradiction. But where did he get contradiction?
01:09
$x\in bdry(A)\subseteq A\Longrightarrow x\in A$
He assumes the proposition and $x\notin A$, then He arrives at $x\in A$. But $x\in A$ is not come in the proposition. It is the conclusion. right?
You have A is a subset of its closure
So it remains to show that the closure is a subset of A.
@Rithaniel Okay, but $\Bbb Z$ has no conjugation action. If $a, b \in \Bbb Z$ then "$bab^{-1}$" (or better, $b + a - b$) is the same thing as $a$.
So you need to show that $x\in\bar{A}\Longrightarrow x\in A$.
@anakhro In the method of contradiction the proof must contradict to our proposition. right?
01:11
So Jose is saying "so suppose that x is not in A".
And then he arrives at "x is in A". Hence x must have been in A to begin with.
Proof by contradiction is where you prove something of the form "if P, then Q" by supposing "not Q" and then showing that this reduces to a contradiction, hence "Q" must be true.
the homotopy classes of paths from $x$ to $y$ form a $\pi_1(X,x)$-$\pi_1(X,y)$-bi-torsor
okay. I got it. It is not I think the method of contradiction. Case1 $x\in A$ and case 2$x\in A^C$. Both cases $x\in A$
@anakhro right?
Hence the proof
Sure, why not. But really he's just doing a plain proof by contradiction.
So, I want to build a homomorphism $L\rightarrow G$ where $f(a^n)\neq f(c)$ for any $n$, but I want to specifically be $G=\mathbb{Z}$ at your recommendation, but that's impossible because then, by the requirement $b^{-1}ab=c$ means that $a=c$ for any given $b$.
Oh god, have I been sending you on a wild goose chase this whole time by misreading your question? One second.
It seems that I have.
I apologize. Let me come up with a hint that works.
You are correct that all you can conclude so far is that if $c = a^n$ for some $n$, then $c = a$.
01:19
Ah, shoot, well, I've learned a little bit about constructing homomorphisms, at least.
OK. Your group is $\langle a, b, c \mid b^{-1} a b = c, ca = ac\rangle$. The first relation says that we don't even need to include $c$ as a generator! This is the same as the group $\langle a, b \mid b^{-1} aba = ab^{-1} ab\rangle$.
Ah, that's clever.
Your observation is correct: if we want to show that $\langle a\rangle$ is not normal by showing that $bab^{-1} \neq a$, we'll need to construct a homomorphism to a nonabelian group.
Alright, the first that comes to mind are 2x2 matrices with nonzero determinant. Perhaps a subgroup thereof?
@TedShifrin if one takes two geodesics on $\Bbb S^2$ and they are mapped to $\Bbb R^3$ and linked, this is the Hopf link right?
01:26
Any two (maximal length) geodesics on S^2 intersect...
(Typing up matrices in latex is annoying)
@Rithaniel I need to think for a moment - a bit distracted on my end so I may be slow.
Some of my favorite groups are the quaternions, and dihedral groups. So I might think of those.
Take your time, I think I have a potential idea.
It's a pretty nasty relation we have here.
Yeah, I'm specifically trying to make it so that $\langle a,b^{1}ab\rangle$ is a normal subgroup, but $\langle a\rangle$ isn't.
01:30
@anakhro then I'll just use two different spheres with one geodesic each, and map each geodesic to $\Bbb R^3$ and then link them together
I guess the moral is to not make up your own group presentations! :P
Okay, so would $b=\begin{bmatrix}
2 & 3 \\
1 & 2
\end{bmatrix}$ and $a=\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \\
1 & 2
\end{bmatrix}$ work?
Also, yeah, it seems to be a headache
Do they satisfy the relation? (I'd plug it into wolfram alpha)
They do, at a glance. $b^{-1}ab=\begin{bmatrix}
2 & 3 \\
-1 & -1
\end{bmatrix}$
Well, actually, didn't check thoroughly enough.
I'm plugging it in now.
01:34
That's just the first one.
Nope, they don't
Unfortunately I do not think it satisfies the big relation.
Yeah
It seems hard to cook something up where that's true. I don't see a way to substantially simplify it.
@Ultradark I don't understand what you are trying to do. Of course if you take any two embeddings of a circle and "link" them (whatever that means), you will get a Hopf link.
But whatever this "link" operation is, you would have to define.
@Rithaniel Here's a reformulation, I dunno if it's useful. Your relation is $(ab) a (ab)^{-1} = bab^{-1}$.
@N.Maneesh what?
01:38
You're trying to show, then, that $(ab) a (ab)^{-1}$ isn't $a$.
@anakhro Now am I correct? I have answered with the help of Jose sir's answer.
Does that imply $ab=b$
Nah.
Life's too hard for that.
1 hour ago, by Rithaniel
Alright, so, given $L=\langle a,b,c\vert b^{-1}ab=c, ac=ca \rangle$. A homomorphism $f:L\rightarrow\mathbb{Z}$ given by $f(a)=f(c)=1$ and $f(b)=0$. Is this valid? If it is, one thing I think it demonstrates is that, in order for $\langle a\rangle$ to be normal, then $a=c$ must be true.
01:40
@N.Maneesh what's "$A'$"?
Is this the question?
@anakhro Set of all limit points of $A$
@Ultradark: No, of course not. Two great circles on the 2-sphere always intersect (twice).
@N.Maneesh It's the same proof.
@anakhro He uses the method of contradiction right?
01:42
Nah, the question is (in current form) Given $\langle a,b\vert (ab)a(ab)^{−1}=bab^{−1}\rangle$ is it true that $\langle a,b^{-1}ab\rangle$ is normal, but $\langle a\rangle$ is not? @LeakyNun
word problem is undecidable
That's not helpful, and also seems like you don't know quite what that sentence means. The word problem is undecidable in arbitrary presentations, and there are specific presentations in which the word problem is undecidable.
I have no reason to believe the word problem is undecidable for this particular presentation.
@N.Maneesh you do as well.
You just hid it with a curtain and didn't say anything about it.
Actually, I just looked it up, and the word problem is decidable for 1-relator groups.
interesting
01:44
@anakhro I use the method of direct proof.
Of course I would rather not find and run the algorithm here, I'd rather have a more elementary argument.
(Hmmm, wanna look up 1-relator groups now)
@TedShifrin okay, so if those two great circles intersect at the north pole and south pole, then it's a singular knot after you map them to $\Bbb R^3$?
I would philosophically object to that being called "direct".
01:45
Andy writes very well.
It's not a knot.
@anakhro I sent you an email not long ago.
*link
I meant to say link
It's also not a link. "Singular link" and "singular knot" are things you will have to define.
Yeah, gets right into it with what a one-relator group is. I don't immediately understand the explanation, but I definitely appreciate a direct approach.
01:46
@anakhro Why Here I don't assume the conclusion is wrong. I started with the proposition then reached the conclusion.
@Rithaniel An element of the free group just means a word.
A singular knot is a smooth map $f:\Bbb S^1\to\Bbb R^3$ whose image has singularities.
Okay, so this is groups which have a single "rule" for it's generators.
I suppose the term would be "a single relation"
@N.Maneesh your proof is almost literally Jose's proof with "$x\in A$" appended to the beginning.
It's still as non-constructive.
01:49
@Rithaniel I do like that you play with specific examples. This one seems like it's getting a bit out of hand. :)
You just fail to mention the obvious contradiction.
Hello one and all! Do we have any people interested in nonlinear DE's in attendance? Would love some advice!
Indeed. I should probably try and state the specifics of the group I want to construct.
It feels good to define something
@anakhro What shall I add in the statement? so that proof is correct. Please help me.
01:54
I want a group $L$ with with a subgroup $L'\unlhd L$ which itself has a subgroup $L''\unlhd L$, but where $L''$ is not normal in $L$.
@N.Maneesh It's not that it's incorrect. It's that it's the same.
@Rithaniel You mean $L''$ is normal in $L'$, right? That's a lot easier. :)
@anakhro Okay.
For instance, what if $L'$ is abelian, but has nontrivial subgroups?
You'd have to rig it so those subgroups are not normal in the big group.
The dihedral group is your friend.
If $\langle a \rangle$ is normal then $b^{-1} a^n b = a$, then $a^n = bab^{-1}$, so $a^{n+2} = a^n$, so $a^2=1$
doesn't seem useful
02:01
Yes, exactly, I was trying to ensure that specifically with that tangled group I invented. Though, hmmmm, dihedral group you say? Do I want odd or even rotations?
Actually, Leaky, if that's true, I could just require that $a^3=1$ and force $\langle a\rangle$ to not be normal. Though, I'm not sure. Shouldn't it be $b^{-1}a^nb=a^m$? It doesn't have to go to the generator after conjugation, necessarily, does it?
Ah, wait, I see, something has to go to the generator.
The example I have in mind only works with $n$ even. It works for $D_4$.
Or $D_8$ if the subscript to you denotes the number of elements.
I'll probably describe it as "dihedral group of the square" to avoid ambiguity.
I typically just wipe the tears off my exam instead of asking which one the professor meant.
"Let $D_8$ be the dihedral group so that the rest of this problem makes sense."
oh and if $n$ is even then $a=1$ (so the group becomes $\Bbb Z$); if $n$ is odd then $ab=ba$ (so the group becomes $C_2 \times \Bbb Z$)
so it suffices to surject the group to another group that cannot be a quotient of $C_2 \times \Bbb Z$
02:07
So, $\langle r\rangle$ for the first level subgroup and $\langle r^2\rangle$ for the second? But isn't $r^{-1}=r^2$, thereby making $\langle r^2\rangle$ normal in $D_{4\text{ or maybe }8}$?
That's not the pair I have in mind.
did you guys surject it to $D_{4,8}$?
Heh, love that subscript, Rithaniel.
@LeakyNun We moved on to a totally different question which motivated the original one.
That presentation is too hard for me.
14 mins ago, by Rithaniel
I want a group $L$ with with a subgroup $L'\unlhd L$ which itself has a subgroup $L''\unlhd L$, but where $L''$ is not normal in $L$.
this?
02:09
Yeah, that's the one. (How do you quote messages?)
Also, danke @anakhro
Well, $\langle r^3\rangle=\langle r\rangle$ so those are normal, so it has to be a different first level.
$\langle r, sr\rangle$ doesn't work because then you just have the dihedral group again.
Maybe $\langle r^2, sr\rangle$?
Why $sr$ instead of $s$?
Just curious.
Testing out ideas, it's the first one I came to. I was actually running on the idea of dihedral group being the same as one generated by two elements of order two.
Well, $s$ and $sr$ more or less do the same thing, so I'm not worried.
02:17
Would be easier to work with $s$.
Okay, so the pair is $\langle r^2,s\rangle$ and $\langle s\rangle$?
Yeah, I believe that works.
waves hello
Heya Daminark
@Rithaniel Yup! :)
In fact, that works in any $D_{2n}$ for $n > 2$ even.
Excellent, thank you for all the help, Mike
Sure thing, Nathaniel.
02:28
Lmao
Actually, it's Adam. Nathaniel is the middle name, which works, I suppose.
Oh wait, I said Mark
Oops
*Mike
l m f a o
lol that was great though
Whoa Alessandro you changed
Yeah yesterday. After almost 5 years it was time to
02:31
Are you saying that one day Daminark won't be a thonk?
As unlikely as it sounds
@Rithaniel I'm astonished I got your middle name right.
Well, I got the name Rithaniel when I was a kid from my middle name. You just reverse engineered it.
02:59
is there a reason chatjax wont render this $$ \overline{x^2} = \frac{1}{n}\sum_{i=1}^n {xi}^2 \geq \frac{1}{n^2}(\sum{i=1}^n x_i)^2 = \overline{x}^2 $$
@Skyler It renders fine for me.
huh, weird, it does it in this window but I have a markdown styled doc where it's bricked
Given a manifold with boundary $M$, the book I'm reading uses the notation $\sqsupset$ for the subset of $I \times M$ given by $I \times \partial M \cup \{1\} \times M$.
This is amazing notation.
Holy crap, that's great.
@Skyler None of the latex on that page renders for me.
03:01
I have a Note at the top for running the chatjax script, click the "link"
it works almost completely fine but there's one spot where it seems like it bricks
Oh it's like a cup, that's clever
btw it should be $x_i^2$
I already stripped out all the formatting in case there was something unsupported there...
@Dair thanks
ok, for sum reason it was the sum_{i=1} part causing most of the problems...
@Skyler Idk, I need to go, but can you not import the mathjax library and use that instead of asking the reader to use ChatJax? That way you could get errors in the webconsole.
And it would also be more convenient for the reader.
@Dair They would still need to click the link right?
03:17
@Skyler No, there are ways to embed MathJax in the page so that no link is needed.
Take for instance math.stackexchange.com
As in I can make some javascript which auto-executes MathJax without user interaction? I am not the site-admin btw
oh nvm, idk what inertia7 allows, I thought you could embed directly.
I might be able to, though I'm not sure how I would embed MathJax in the first place
03:34
one last test: $$ = \sum_{i=1}^n ( (x_i - \overline{x})^2 + 2 \overline{x} ( x_i - \overline{x) + \overline{x^2} ) $$
Hi chat!!
Any method to solve for the system -
$F(x_{0},y_{0}) = 0$
and
$G(x_{0},y_{0}) = 0$
where F and G are non-linear
03:57
What are F and G?
I think he's trying for the general case where all we know is the initial conditions are static state
actually idk
04:31
F and G are continuous functions / nonlinear involving $x_{0},y_{0}$
Zee
Zee
05:08
No
 
1 hour later…
06:37
@Rudi_Birnbaum
A more abstract but crazy beautiful one: here's a Penrose tiling and its Fourier transform.
@AkivaWeinberger One then can ask why do we have ten-fold symmetry in the diffraction pattern while the tiling (apparently) is only 5-fold.
07:03
Because, despite having only one axis of 5-fold symmetry and no axis of 10-fold symmetry, if you rotate any finite patch by a tenth of a turn (36 deg) you can find the rotated version infinitely many times in the original
So, if you are given a finite patch, you can only know the orientation of the tiling modulo a tenth-turn (instead of the fifth-turn you'd expect from the axis of symmetry).
Right!
:-)
Oh you already knew the answer
No, but I just saw it.
Ah
Ah, yes, the Penrose tiling's natural habitat: math/science buildings in universities
07:39
@Rudi_Birnbaum In other words:
Even if you had a map of the whole thing, your local surroundings wouldn't give you a clue as to where you are, and they wouldn't even tell you which way you're facing except mod 36.
(If that were a regular tiling, those bees wouldn't know where they were facing except mod 60)
08:18
Morning!
Trying to think what nontrivial tiling can give all the same mod 1
 
1 hour later…
09:36
@Secret You could use the idea used in this applet (the cut-and-project method)
I think if you want 360-fold symmetry, you'd need 90 different types of rhombus
Every rhombus whose angles are an integer number of degrees
(with that algorithm, anyway)
If you want to see an actual lecture on aperiodic tilings (which is what got me looking at this stuff in the first place): https://youtu.be/a0wo_yAh0Ps
54min15sec
Let X be a set, if F is a sigma algebra generated by some collection of subsets of X, E, I know that countable union and complementation of sets from E is in the sigma algebra, BUT is it correct that every set in F is countable union/complementation/intersection of sets in E?
09:57
@Eran I think arbitrary intersections of a family of sets that are arbitrary union of E can fall outside E though they are elements in F
10:10
@Eran Let X be the set of real numbers, and E be the set of open intervals. Show that ℚ, the set of rationals, is in F.
each $a\in \mathbb{Q} $ , $a = \bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} (a-\frac{1}{n},a+\frac{1}{n})$, $\mathbb{Q}$ is countable so $ \mathbb{Q} = \bigcup_{a\in \mathbb{Q}} \bigcap_{n=1}^{\infty} (a-\frac{1}{n},a+\frac{1}{n} )$
That is why $F_{\sigma}$ and $G_{\delta}$ sets are such classics
Countable union of countable intersection intervals is in F
@AkivaWeinberger, am I correct?
I wonder how to prove the general case where the set $F,X,E$ are not specified...
somehow that means at least countable intersections must have triggered something that caused the falling out from $E$ in the first place...
It is easy to see why in the context of topology, but what if $F,X,E$ are not topologies?
10:32
@Eran Yes
So you do need two levels. You can't do it with just intersections or just unions.
how does intersection and union trigger the falling out in the general case?
10:49
@AkivaWeinberger Ok, assuming I can do countable number of levels, is it correct that every set in F can be written as countable union/intersection/complement countable times of any operation you want, of sets in E?
Akiva, do you know why combination of intersection and union can cause the resulting set to fall outside a given set?
@Eran I'm not actually sure… if you had a subset of $[0,1]$ that required one level, a subset of $[1,2]$, that required two levels, a subset of $[2,3]$ that required three levels, etc., and union'd them together, you'd get something that required infinitely many levels
and then if you intersected a bunch of things of that type, you could get a level higher
and go up the ordinal hierarchy
דם איק
oops
@Secret I dunno beyond "infinity is weird"
@Eran "Blood eek"?
hmm... ok
10:58
So what you're saying is that the sets in the sigma-algebra can't be defined by the sets of the collection generating this sigma-algebra
I assume that you can read hebrew (also by your name)
Not sure if you're israeli or not
Lo, ani amerikái, aval ani baáretz lashana
Ani lomed beyeshiva
Beyerushalaym?
I study Math and cs here in huji
11:00
haha nice
Ah, I was there over the summer in Ulpan
In Givat Ram?
Mount Scopus campus
Wikipedia has a construction involving the ordinal hierarchy, but the simplest discription is probably just "the smallest sigma-algebra containing these things"
"Take all the sigma-algebras that contain these sets nd intersect them"
In mathematics, a Borel set is any set in a topological space that can be formed from open sets (or, equivalently, from closed sets) through the operations of countable union, countable intersection, and relative complement. Borel sets are named after Émile Borel. For a topological space X, the collection of all Borel sets on X forms a σ-algebra, known as the Borel algebra or Borel σ-algebra. The Borel algebra on X is the smallest σ-algebra containing all open sets (or, equivalently, all closed sets). Borel sets are important in measure theory, since any measure defined on the open sets of a...
yup I know that's the definition
The ordinal hierarchy, for the record, is essentially "What if we decided to count past infinity"
So it starts $0$, $1$, $2$, etc
$0,1,2,3,\dots,\omega,\omega+1,\omega+2,\dots,\omega+\omega$
${}=\omega\cdot2,\omega\cdot2+1,\dots, \omega\cdot3,\dots$
11:05
Okay, thanks
But yeah in the "Generating the Borel algebra" section of that Wikipedia article it mentions those
By the way
Fibonacci
The red tile has size $1$, the purple(?) tile has size $\varphi$, the next one has size $1+\varphi=\varphi^2$, and inductively you can continue that as far as you want
and the number of tiles in each thing trace the Fibonacci numbers
11:31
@AkivaWeinberger lol!
@ÍgjøgnumMeg God morgon!
@AkivaWeinberger: Do you know any program that could fourier-transform jpg images?
@Rudi hej rudi :)
Hey everyone!
Hey @ÍgjøgnumMeg :)
Hope things are going well on your side!
The first $\omega_1$ levels of the Borel hierarchy are all distinct for Polish spaces, I don't know in general
11:40
Living the dream
Silly question, the statement of the dual universal coeffcients theorem is the following above, and if we have $n = 0$, then $H_{n-1}(X) = \emptyset$ (if I recall correctly) which isn't a group so $\operatorname{Ext}(H_{n-1}(X), A)$ isn't even defined
Ohh wait maybe $H_{-1}(X) = 0$
Or maybe $H_{-1}(X)$ is undefined
@Perturbative chanin complexes are always infinite on both sides. We just fill them with $0$'s to make them appear finite, so all (co)homology is always defined.
Assume that there are zero modules in you chain complex in negative dimensions
Damn I got sniped
Ahh okay that makes sense
I don't ever think about the negative ones so I must've forgot that :p
You can have homology theories with negative homology modules as well sometimes
11:56
Hmm, none of the topological ones I've seen so far (singular, simplicial, cellular) have had non-zero negative homology modules (though I think there's a theorem that states they are all the same homology theory essentially)
For CW-complexes
Oh derp, well I need to look at cellular again
I assume spectra also have those (seeing as they are essentially like CW complexes which allow things in negative degrees).
12:21
@Rudi_Birnbaum Not that I know of
12:56
yesterday, by Akiva Weinberger
Even the identity matrix doesn't work normally
I acutally knew what $$\frac{d ♥}{dt}$$ is
the answer lies in $\mathcal{C}_0$
13:20
I never have been able to get mathjax to work on this phone.
13:57
@Rithaniel if your phone supports javascript, all you actually need to run mathjax is a link to the code that will execute on click.
14:07
4 hours ago, by Akiva Weinberger
If you want to see an actual lecture on aperiodic tilings (which is what got me looking at this stuff in the first place): https://youtu.be/a0wo_yAh0Ps
See also this: youtu.be/srBjBiEGP7U
Fills in some gaps, and also describes a daring trip to Far East Russia
(1hr15min, so a bit longer than the other one)
@AkivaWeinberger Shabat shalom
14:48
@TobiasKildetoft: Hi (and hi all again), after sleeping over your metric statement, I have a question: I always thought that symmetry of an object is the collection of automorphisms of this object. Now you mentioned that thing with metric conservation. I never came across that restriction. Where does it come from?
@LeakyNun: have you ever heard about "de Rham cohomology"?
15:06
yes
What is it?
A cohomology theory based on differential forms
I just start to understand the concept of cohomology. What is a cohomology theory?
15:30
Just parse it as "a kind of cohomology based on..."
tell me more about these alien-sounding abelian group sequences constrained to mere topological space.
when is it finally garbology? That I wish to understand.
Would then derivation/integration be instances of de Rham co/homologies?
15:53
Hi all. Something is bothering me. Given a Symplectic closed manifold M and given two Lagrangian sub manifolds L_0 and L_1 that intersects, can we always assume that they intersect transversely? I.e can I perturb them via say hamiltonian isotopies to ensure that they are still Lagrangian and transverse?
I'm asking this since in a lot of results it's asked that the lagrangians meets transversely but I can't find any statement that ensure that this happens
Yes, that's true. I would have to work a little to come up with the proof, but more or less just think about how the usual transversality theorem is proved.
You pick some really big finite-dimensional space of Hamiltonians (call it H) so that at each point, the map H -> T_x L_0 cap T_x L_1 is surjective.
It is not hard to show this is possible for one point x. For all points at once, apply compactness.
mmh I guess I'll have to think about it for a moment
@Rudi_Birnbaum No, de Rham cohomology has a precise meaning.
but thanks for the input!
@Riccardo Are both of the steps in my middle line unclear?
The compactness argument should be easy (if that map is surjective at one point, it's surjective at nearby points, and so you get an open cover, choose a finite subcover, and sum over the corresponding spaces of Hamiltonians), and the first part requiring only a small bit of computation.

« first day (3110 days earlier)      last day (2205 days later) »