Let $M$ be a surface in $\mathbb{R}^3$. Then if $\zeta$ is a unit normal vector field on $M$ and $v$ is a unit tangent to $M$ at $p$ and $v$ is an eigenvector of $A_\zeta:T_pM\to T_pM$ say $A_\zeta(v)=\lambda v$, then, if we intersect the normal plane (generated by $\zeta$ and $v$) with $M$, we get a curve with planar curvature exactly $\lambda$ (at $p$). Does this generalizes for hypersurfaces in higher dimensional $\mathbb R^n$?
The problem is that in higher dimensions, the normal plane intersected with the hypersurface gives us something at least 2D, right? So, this does not determine a curve to look at...
for example, the point produced when you place your finger on a towel and then twist you finger so the towel become crumbled around the finger. Is there a mathematical characterisation of that point where the twist converges to?
I don't know... What I do know is that if those three ridges you saw in that photo is more curved, then there is more twisting in the neighbourhood of that singular point, but I am not sure if cone deficit angles is enough to capture the complexity of that
@BAYMAX typically the casework you'd do for divisibility by m is to consider n having remainder 0 mod m, remainder 1 mod m, ..., and remainder m-1 mod m
if n is even n^2 is even and n^2 - 2 is also even, so when its of the form 2k , so does 5 divide 4k^2 - 2 ? suppose 5 diivides 4k^2 - 2, then 5 must divide 4k^2 and 5 divide 2 but 5 doesnot divide 2 hence it cannot divide 4k^2 - 2 ----- will this work ?? @Semiclassical
@BAYMAX to get a sense of why the remainders approach is handy: Suppose you write down the first few instances of n^2-5 and see what their remainders mod 5 are
Consider the following theorem:
For any $a, b \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, there exist $m, n \in \mathbb{Z}$ such that $m > n$ and $a\ |\ b^m - b^n$.
What's the best way to prove it? I have an idea (and I know it's true because of that idea), but I don't know how rigorous it is to constitute a proof.
In mathematics, the pigeonhole principle states that if
n
{\displaystyle n}
items are put into
m
{\displaystyle m}
containers, with
n
>
m
{\displaystyle n>m}
, then at least one container must contain more than one item. This theorem is exemplified in real life by truisms like "in any group of three gloves there must be at least two left gloves or at least two right gloves". It is an example of a counting argument. This seemingly obvious statement can...
So for instance, if n=100, you only need to write down a^k mod 100 for k=0 to 100. You're guaranteed to repeat remainders mod 100 somewhere along that list.
You can of course find examples with k,l larger than 100. but you only need one such example, so you don't need to look farter than that
Hence I must repeat a box eventually. Since whichever powers $a^k,a^l$ which I put into that same box have the same remainder mod $n$, we have $a^k=a^l$ mod $n$
i.e. $n$ divides $a^k-a^l$.
This is essentially the idea which is in the earlier answer, just with the pigeonhole principle being used explicitly
First of all, does the base act trivially on cohomology of fiber? $\pi_1 B\Bbb Z_2 \cong \Bbb Z_2$ and the action of $1$ is just by $f_*$ where $f$ is the self-map of $S^2 \times S^2$ given by $f(x, y) = (-x, -y)$, I guess?
That's not trivial on $H_2$... what am I messing up?
I want to know Fundamental theorem of calculus better, hence I was staring at this seductive pic. What I can't understand is in $\int_a^b f(x)\,dx=F(b)-F(a)$, why do we need to subtract $F(a)?$ Can I see that in the linked pic?
I have a fiber bundle $F \to X \to B$ such that $\pi_1 B$ acts trivially on $H_* F$. Then there's a spectral sequence with $E^2$ page $H_q(B; H_p(F))$, differentials going diagonally, such that there is a filtration of $H_n(X)$ with successive quotients being $E^\infty_{k, n-k}$.
Homology of $E^i$ is $E^{i+1}$, $E^\infty$ is whatever survives at all pages
Before thinking about those two, it's also easy for $q = 0, 3, 4$, right? $H_3 = 0$ by PD and the action on $H_0$ because nothing happens to connected components when we flip, and $H_4 \cong H^0$ (or, nothing happens to fundamental class/orientation when we flip)
So $q = 2$ is indeed the only problem, where we have to compute actual twisted homology instead of standard vanilla singular homology.
So for $q = 2$, $\underline{\Bbb Z \oplus \Bbb Z}$ is the sheaf on $\Bbb{RP}^\infty$ you get when replacing the fibers of $S^\infty \to \Bbb{RP}^\infty$ by $\Bbb Z \oplus \Bbb Z$.
(I think I meant that the pullback of the sheaf to $S^\infty$ is the constant sheaf with values in $\Bbb Z^2$) The action of $\Bbb Z_2$ on $\Bbb Z^2$ is $1 \cdot (x, y) = (-x, -y)$ - the diagonal action of $\Bbb Z_2$ by the only nontrivial automorphism of $\Bbb Z$.
Do you want me to say that the sheaf trivializes away from $\Bbb{RP}^1 \subset \Bbb{RP}^\infty$? I guess it's not clicking with me.
I guess I have a homomorphism $H_*(S^\infty; \Bbb Z^2) \to H_*(\Bbb{RP}^\infty; \underline{\Bbb Z^2})$ by the pullback thing I said, by functoriality of sheaf cohomology.
Do you want me to do the explicit computation, making $\Bbb Z^2$ a $\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]$-module using the action, and taking tensor product with the cellular chain complex of $S^\infty$?
Oh, the local homology in this case is a certain group homology, I suppose.
It is well known how to compute cohomology of a finite cyclic group $C_m=\langle \sigma \rangle$, just using the periodic resolution,
$\require{AMScd}$
\begin{CD}
\cdots @>N>> \mathbb Z C_m @> \sigma -1>> \mathbb Z C_m @>N>> \mathbb Z C_m @> \sigma -1>> \mathbb Z C_m @> >> \mathbb Z
\en...
Also the thing you're thinking of is that if some page is concentrated in even bidegree (2p, 2q), all differentials are zero - but there could be d_3 or d_5 in our picture
@MikeMiller I don't get it. $H_n(\Bbb{RP}^\infty; \underline{\Bbb Z^2})$ is the cohomology of $C_*(S^\infty) \otimes_{\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]} \Bbb Z^2$. In the standard cellulation of $S^\infty$, $C_*(S^\infty)$ is $\cdots \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2$, where every map $\Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2$ sends $(1, 0)$ and $(0, 1)$ both to $(1, 1)$.
Where standard cellulation of $S^\infty$ is lift of the cellulation of $\Bbb{RP}^\infty$ to $S^\infty$, so in each dimension I have two cells.
So when I tensor with $\otimes_{\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]} \Bbb Z^2$, doesn't it remain the same chain complex, and homology is zero??
I should take the augmented $C_*(S^\infty)$, which is $\cdots \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z^2 \to \Bbb Z \to 0$.
And the group homology is $H_*(\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]; \Bbb Z^2)$, right?
Er, $H_*(\Bbb Z_2; \Bbb Z^2)$ I mean
No, in $\Bbb Z^2 \otimes_{\Bbb Z[\Bbb Z_2]} \Bbb Z^2$, $\Bbb Z_2$ acts on the two copies of $\Bbb Z^2$ in very different ways. In the first copy, $1 \cdot (x, y) = (y, x)$. In the second copy $1 \cdot(x, y) = (-x, -y)$
I'll try this computation out later today, I need sleep before this. Too many different actions, too many Z's, too many 2's
But it's $H_*(\Bbb Z_2; \Bbb Z^2)$ we are computing, that's for sure.
Am I missing something, or is the claim asked about in math.stackexchange.com/questions/3032421/… wrong? It seems to me that there should be an embedding of rings, since one is the algebraic closure of the field of fractions of the other (assuming choice).
Funny problem, at first I thought I need a trascendental over $\Bbb R$ in $\Bbb C$ to play the role of $x$, which is impossible, but there actually is such an embedding, with a bit of choice of course
Problem: Given spaces $X,Y$, let $[X,Y]$ denote the homotopy classes of maps of $X$ into $Y$. If $X=I = [0,1]$ and $Y$ is path-connected, prove that $[X,Y]$ has a single element. Attempt: Let $f : I \to Y$ be some continuous map. It suffices to show $f$ is homotopic to the constant path from $y_0 \in Y$ to $y_0$. For every $s \in I$, there is a path $p_s$ from $f(s)$ to $y_0$. Consider $H : I \times I \to Y$ defined by $H(s,t) = p_s(t)$. Then $H(s,0) = p_s(0) = f(s)$ and $H(s,1) = p_s(1) = y_0$.
Because if I draw the diagram for a product and then add the two bonus arrows toward S I immediately get that the product in Sch/S has the same universal product as the fibered product in Sch
Solve the following system of equations using Gaussian Elimination Method
$$x+2y+3z=2$$
$$x+y-z=1$$
$$2x+3y+2z=3$$.
My Attempt :
$$x+2y+3z=2………(1)$$
$$x+y-z=1…………(2)$$
$$2x+3y+2z=3………(3)$$
Subtracting equation $(1)$ from equation $(2)$, we have
$$y+4z=1………(4)$$
Multiplying equation $(1)$ by $2...
Let $f: \mathbb{R} to \mathbb{R}$ with the properties: $f(x)>0, \forall x \geq 0$, $f$ is decreasing and $f'(0)=0$. I want to prove that $f''(x)=0$ for some $x>0$.