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23:01
No excuse is needed. Just do it. Nike.
Impossible is nothing. Adidas.
Eat your Wheaties. Wheaties.
Oh, it's a @Fargle.
hi Jasper
It is indeed. Heya @Ted.
No math to discuss, @Fargle?
23:09
I'm almost through section 3. Still gathering my thoughts.
Focus is not my strongest suit.
Section 3 of whom?
btw Ted
to do ring theory
what does one need to know about group theory ?
just the iso theorems and some basic stuff yeah ?
You certainly don't need Sylow theorems. But, as usual, you ask a very vague question.
yeah you basiclly read my mind ><
ring theory seems not very dependant on group theory
i mean ok a ring is an abelian group with +
and some other properties
It all depends how advanced you get.
23:11
and then one does quotient rings
just basic so far =p
quotient rings will need some knowledge of the quotient process
and some iso thm , and then it is kinda indepandant
we gonna go thru PID UFC etc
Note that I did all that basic ring stuff first in my book.
I know ! :)
and guess what kasmir will read now ?
But as you get to more advanced stuff with modules, representation theory, etc., you start using a lot more group theory and linear algebra, of course.
okay, but am planning to do algebra properly
so gonna do full linear algebra course at home
the books am using are serge lang and steve roman books
first lang than roman
after that am gonna repeat group theory and ring theory properly
I don't know Roman. Lang's is a standard university course.
23:15
when i took LA, we did not do anything usefull
litterly that is why i have been struggling
I might disagree with you on the meaning of "useful."
so anyway :D kasmir got long hard year infront of him
okay ><
but really was not enough to take the next step
@KasmirKhaan You go to SU?
We already discussed Artin.
@Lozansky uppsala and you ?
23:16
KTH
yes artin is very good book
@Lozansky nice what do you study ?
If you know all the linear algebra in Artin, you're fine, @Kasmir.
Teknisk fysik ^^
coolt :)
But Lozansky bugs us anyhow.
It's like 3 years now :P
23:17
@TedShifrin okay thanks Ted !
Did you ever settle that mixed cylindrical/spherical coordinates problem, @Lozansky?
@TedShifrin Yeah mostly
OK, good.
I really didn't want to spend 20 minutes trying to think about it.
I think the important thing to note was that $\hat{s}$ is $2\pi$ periodic in $\phi$ so the whole component vanished which is nice
Yeah it was a bit messy
I mean: I like complicated computations, but ...
23:20
I prefer neat tricks :P
As you know, I teach students to EXPLOIT SYMMETRY whenever possible :P
I'm gonna take a course in abstract algebra next semester, is that in your wheelhouse @TedShifrin?
Course book is Judson
Never heard of that book.
I'm fonder of analysis/geometry, but the first book I wrote was an algebra textbook.
I might take a course in analysis as well :P
There are lots of folks here you can talk to :P
23:24
Feel like I need to learn some real math
I'd prefer to learn some complex math
I just answered a complex analysis question on the Poincaré half-plane, Leaky.
for real?
I wasn't imagining it.
it would have been complex to imagine
23:26
You're recycling now.
:(
today in one of the courses the professor said that if $f:\Omega\to\Bbb C$ is holomorphic at $p$ then $f'$ is also holomorphic at $p$
I thought for a while and came up with $f(z)=|z|^2$ and told the lecturer at the end of the lesson
Depends on the definition.
Some people say that holomorphic means complex differentiable on an open set ...
aha
interesting
Different books have different conventions.
well he didn't say that
23:29
But you're right. Your $f$ is complex diff. only at $0$.
To prove what he wants you need an open set to get a Taylor expansion ...
right
Or the Cauchy integral formula to differentiate.
the proof is really beautiful
when I told my friend the proof he was like wow
Regardless, either way, you need a little disk.
and then when I told him the proof for the annulus he was like double wow
23:30
Complex analysis is one of my favorite courses ...
Wait ... what proof for the annulus?
and then when I showed that the formula for the coefficients is the same he was like triple wow
you talking about Laurent expansions now?
right
if $f:\{z ~:~ r<|z|<R\} \to \Bbb C$ is holomorphic then it has a Laurent expansion at $0$
Make sure you can show your friend explicit examples of how you do it. :)
I did
23:31
OK
I made it a corollary :P
wait
I misunderstood
I've had to explain concrete computations to several people in here
maybe I'll do that next time
You have to use geometric series expansions, dividing through by different things.
oh and do you have a function that cannot be continued beyond the unit disc?
or should I think about it more?
23:32
The standard example is $\sum z^{n!}$.
You mean analytically continuable NOWHERE on the boundary, right?
right
Yeah, the one I just gave you is the standard example. Figure out why.
I feel like I only need to consider $z=\exp(i\pi\theta)$ for rational $\theta$
23:34
Presumably that's relevant.
there the series eventually becomes 1
so it can't converge
Be careful.
that the limit of the series is not the series of the limit
$\sum z^n$ fails to converge at every $z$ with $|z|=1$, but the function is still analytically continuable almost everywhere.
This is one of the really subtle things in complex analysis.
I've trapped students with that on many a complex analysis qualifying exam. :P
I think I'll want to travel on the line $z=r\exp(i\pi\theta)$, $0 \le r \le 1$ for rational $\theta$
hmm...
and reduce to the case to $\theta = 0$
because after a finite number of terms, $(r\exp(i\pi\theta))^{n!} = r^{n!}$
so I need to prove that $\lim_{r\to1^-} \sum r^{n!} = \infty$
23:41
And then you need to write a proof why that shows there's no analytic continuation across.
because the rationals are dense in the reals
You have more to say than this.
But I'm leaving for now, so you can contemplate.
Last night dream there are two things:
There are two family of sets consists of disjoint union of intervals. One of these is:
if there's continuation in the direction of $\theta$, then we can use the fact that $[0,\exp(i\pi\theta)]$ is compact to deduce that the function is bounded there, and then some test should be able to tell you that the function converges uniformly there
and that's the Weierstrass M-test
aha I can use the same test
since the function $\sum r^{n!}$ is increasing, if it doesn't go to $\infty$ then it must go to some $L$
so we have a continuous function $[0,1] \to \Bbb R$
so we can exchange limit with series
@TedShifrin how does this sound?
$\bigcup_{n<\infty} [n,2n+1]$ and another are $S_m = \bigcup_{n<\infty}[n,f_m(n)]$ where $f_m$ is a sequence of functions: $\{n^{m}|m\in \Bbb{Z}\}$. This eventually this union will cover $\bigcup_{n<\infty} [n,2n+1]$
Then there is a paragraph following these two families saying the second family has a higher abruptness than the first, with abruptness defines by:
$\text{abrupt}(r)=\frac{1+f(r)}{f(r)}$ where the $f(r)$ is the probability that the given function will take different values within any interval of size $|r-a|$
A plot of an abrupt function is then shown (to be posted)

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