Ok, I've returned with a bit of a silly question. I've determined that the bases for the Images of two linear maps are (0,1,0) and {(1,1,0),(0,1,1)} respectively. But how do I prove that their direct sum is the vector space of degree 2 polynomials?
Do I necessarily have an error in the second basis somewhere?
I can sketch you a proof: the reals are second countable, as is every subspace of the reals. If there was a disjoint union of uncountably many open intervals, that subspace would have a open cover which has no countable subcover which is impossible as second countable implies Lindelöf ("every open cover has a countable subcover")
In the mathematical field of topology, local finiteness is a property of collections of subsets of a topological space. It is fundamental in the study of paracompactness and topological dimension.
A collection of subsets of a topological space X is said to be locally finite, if each point in the space has a neighbourhood that intersects only finitely many of the sets in the collection.
Note that the term locally finite has different meanings in other mathematical fields.
== Examples and properties ==
A finite collection of subsets of a topological space is locally finite. Infinite collections...
If you zoom that far down, then surely because of the fact that between every irrationals that are countably many rationals and between every rationals there are uncountably many irrationals that it should be possible to have intervals that contains infinitesimals and irrationals but having all rationals excluded?
In mathematics, the surreal number system is a totally ordered proper class containing the real numbers as well as infinite and infinitesimal numbers, respectively larger or smaller in absolute value than any positive real number. The surreals share many properties with the reals, including the usual arithmetic operations (addition, subtraction, multiplication, and division); as such, they form an ordered field. If formulated in Von Neumann–Bernays–Gödel set theory, the surreal numbers are a universal ordered field in the sense that all other ordered fields, such as the rationals, the reals, the...
@AdarshKumar Why would it be lost forever? You will obviously still know about it, and you could publish whatever you want with it. Why is it so important to keep a poorly received post alive? Also, closure does not mean a post will be deleted for certain...
I assume you know what the smallest grammar problem is. It's basically, how can we, given an input string $s$ construct a grammar $g$ that expands to the single string $s$? Can we compute the smallest such grammar efficiently is a major open problem that I do not wish to solve. However, maybe ...
We have the initital value problem $$\begin{cases}y'(t)=1/f(t, y(t)) \\ y(t_0)=y_0\end{cases} \ \ \ \ \ (1)$$ where the function $f:\mathbb{R}^2\rightarrow (0,\infty)$ is continuous in $\mathbb{R}^2$ and continuously differentiable as for $y$ in a domain that contains the point $(t_0, y_0)$.
Sh...
@Semiclassical since SU(2) is compact, can't you just pick a positive definite symmetric quadratic form on V then average it over SU(2) to get an invariant one ?
I know that finite extensions of $\mathbb{C}(x)$ correspond to finite branched covers of $\mathbb{P}^1$, and this leads to an abstract characterization of the absolute Galois group of $\mathbb{C}(x)$ as the profinite completion of a free group of rank $\# \mathbb{C}$ via Riemann existence (or som...
@ÍgjøgnumMeg That sounds like a recipe for disaster. First it has to "guess" what is being said, then it has to "guess" that those words should be in English
The collection of all degree-$n$ polynomials in the variable $w$ (call this set $\mathbb{C}[w]_n$) can be identifies with $\mathbb{C}^{n+1}$ by the bijection $F:\mathbb{C}^{n+1}\to\mathbb{C}[w]_n$ defined by $$F:(a_0,a_1,\ldots,a_n)\mapsto w=p(z)=a_0+a_1z+\cdots+a_nz^n.$$ Let $\mathcal{A}_n\subs...
@TobiasKildetoft I think it just adds a google translate layer on top of the autogenerated German subtitles so it's probably going to be somewhere between completely unintelligible and very bad
@AlessandroCodenotti Right. Especially seeing as many of the terms will be math specific, so a direct translation will be meaningless (you will probably end up learning a lot about bodies).
The problem I am working on is about the space $X = \Bbb{R}\ \{\mbox{y-axis}\}$, the quotient space of $\Bbb{R}^2$ obtained by identifying the $y$-axis with a point. What exactly does this space look like? What do elements in the set $X$ look like? When they say the $y$-axis is identified with a point, are they saying that for every $y \in \Bbb{R}$, $(0,y)$ is sent to some point $(a,b)$?
@AkivaWeinberger galois groups and prime numbers Theorem (Frobenius, 1896) Let $P(x) = x^n + a_1 x^{n-1} + \cdots + a_n$ be a polynomial with rational coefficients. According to Galois there is an associated Galois group $G$, which permutes the solutions of $P(x) = 0$. For (almost) every prime number $p$ there is an (almost) well-defined element Frob_p in G, the Frobenius automorphism.
Please vote to undelete this post: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1656686/how-many-rectangles-can-be-observed-in-the-grid This post has 10,934 times views and 2 years, 7 months old.
@user193319 $(x,y)R(w,z)$ if and only if (a) either $(x,y)$ and $(w,z)$ are the same point or (b) $x=0$ and $w=0$ (that is, both points are on the $y$-axis)
In general, $A/B$ (where $A$ and $B$ are spaces) means you quotient by the equivalence relation where all the things in $B$ are equivalent to each other, and everything else is only equivalent to itself
given a function $f:X \to Y$, if I have a topology on $X$, then I can make a topology on $Y$ by stipulating that $T \subseteq Y$ is open iff $f^{-1}(T) \subseteq X$ is open
In topology and related areas of mathematics, an induced topology on a topological space is a topology which makes the inducing function continuous from/to this topological space.
== Definition ==
Let
X
0
,
X
1
{\displaystyle X_{0},X_{1}}
be sets,
f
:
X
0
→
X
1
...
wow this really feels like the direct image functor
In topology and related areas of mathematics, a quotient space (also called an identification space) is, intuitively speaking, the result of identifying or "gluing together" certain points of a given topological space. The points to be identified are specified by an equivalence relation. This is commonly done in order to construct new spaces from given ones. The quotient topology consists of all sets with an open preimage under the canonical projection map that maps each element to its equivalence class.
== Definition ==
Let (X, τX) be a topological space, and let ~ be an equivalence relation on...
excuse me, does anyone know of a very basic resource on projections? somewhere that I can read to understand why the trace of a projection matrix gives me the rank (preferably without even touching eigenvalues as I should be able to construct this proof before we get to diagonalization)
I want to find the equilibrium solutions and determine their stability.
$(1)\left\{\begin{matrix}
\dot{x}=-y-x(1-\sqrt{x^2+y^2})^2\\
\dot{y}=x-y(1-\sqrt{x^2+y^2})^2
\end{matrix}\right.$
I also want to check the behavior of the solutions of $(1)$ when $t \to \infty$. There are five possible ans...
@LeakyNun the Spec functor is right adjoint to the global section function, so it sends colimits of rings to limits of Schemes $\mathrm{Spec}(k[X_1,X_2,\dots])=\mathrm{Spec}(\varinjlim\limits_{n \in \Bbb N}k[ X_1, \dots X_n])=\varprojlim\limits_{n \in \Bbb N} \mathrm{Spec}(k[X_1, \dots, X_n])=\varprojlim\limits_{n \in \Bbb N}\Bbb A^n(k)$
Yes but it doesn't hold that if $f \neq 0$, $\forall x \in (0, \frac{\pi}{4})$ then the integral is non-zero... And it also doesn't suffice for f to be contnuous to determine if the integral can be zero or not... Or am I wrong? @LeakyNun
but e^it = cos(t)+i sin(t) and e^-it = cos(t)-i sin(t)
so in the simplest case you need A=B to get z(t) = 2A e^-t cos(t)
(it's actually a bit more involved than this, since A,B can be complex. once you take that into account, you'll find that it gets modified to $z(t) = C e^{-t} cos(t)+D e^{-t}sin(t)$ where $C,D$ are appropriate constants)
So you'll have an overall exponential decay, along with some oscillatory function coming from $e^{\pm i t}$
@LeakyNun comment le démontrer ? si E est dénombrable donc il existe une bijection entre lui et N, comment montrer qu'il ya une bijection entre $f(E)$ et N?
Ok @Semiclassical If we had the eigenvalues $1 \pm i$, how would we deduce the stability of the equilibrum solution? In general, having found the Jacobi matrix and then the eigenvalues, are both x and y expressed as linear combinations of $e^{\lambda t}$ and $e^{-\lambda t}$ ?
Ah yes, right... But in order to check the stability of the equilibrum solution, if one of x or y tends to $\infty$ we immediatedy deduce that the system is unstable, and if one tends to 0 , we also have to check the other, right? @Semiclassical
I am a little confused now... The x and y that we found correspond to the equilibrum solution... Can we express the general solution of the ode in term of the above? @Semiclassical
@Evinda the equilibrium solution is just x(t)=y(t)=0
the x(t), y(t) solution found earlier is not a solution to the original ode. What it solves is the linearized ode, which you get from the original ode by tossing out nonlinear terms
In this case, x’(t)=-y-x and y’(t)=x-y constitute the linearized system
If you plug the solution to that linearized system into the original system, you’ll find that it’s not a solution to the latter