« first day (2962 days earlier)      last day (2357 days later) » 
02:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

17:11
Hi all; @mercio Hello, did you see my messages?
Hey, quick question, because I am an idiot: when you write $A\cos(\omega t + \varphi)$, what do we call that constant $\omega$? ($|A|$ is the amplitude, and $\varphi$ is the phase shift---does $\omega$ have a name?)
It isn't quite the frequency, though it is related....
@XanderHenderson in German its called "Kreisfrequenz"
Hrm... that is nice to know, but not a great term for my precalc students.
in Engl "Angular frequency" apparently
In physics, angular frequency ω (also referred to by the terms angular speed, radial frequency, circular frequency, orbital frequency, radian frequency, and pulsatance) is a scalar measure of rotation rate. It refers to the angular displacement per unit time (e.g., in rotation) or the rate of change of the phase of a sinusoidal waveform (e.g., in oscillations and waves), or as the rate of change of the argument of the sine function. Angular frequency (or angular speed) is the magnitude of the vector quantity angular velocity. The term angular frequency vector ...
I was just about to report that Google translate gives that as angular frequency.
Thank you.
17:18
welcome :-)
17:28
@Xander: Since you're giving position as a function of time, $\omega$ is usually called angular velocity (in physics and in math).
Good mornfternevenight, chat.
5
Gesundheit @Fargle
Leave my health out of this!
Question: How do you demonstrate that it is strictly possible to draw an equilateral triangle around a point in $\mathbb{R}^{d}$ ? Or is that something you could say is self-evident?
How are you, @Ted?
17:30
Doing decently, thanks, @Fargle, and you?
Well, $\mathbb{R}^{2}$, specifically.
@Rithaniel: Do you literally mean triangle? I.e., a planar object?
Oh.
What do you mean by "around"? Just that the point is somewhere inside?
Planar object, yes. (Sorry, I've gotten into the habit of saying $\mathbb{R}^{d}$). Also, the point is at the centroid of the triangle.
Oh, see ... you need to be very specific in your questions!
Yes, my professors have been drilling that into my head.
17:32
So, there's a $2$-parameter family of equilateral triangles with a fixed centroid. You can rotate and dilate them ....
@Ted Pretty well. I've just been given another prospect for publishable research (that's very much like the last time), which is heartening. I've also been given some good recommendations on regional graduate schools, especially those for master's study. Outside of that, just trying to keep my nose to the homework grindstone, and trying to sink my feet back into my extracurricular reading when I can.
Sinking your feet is very à propos, with Florence looming.
I feel that it should be self evident that the set of all triangles with that point as the centroid is not $\emptyset$.
@Rithaniel: I'm not sure what your context is and/or what you "know."
Here's one way to approach it. Draw an equilateral triangle. Find its centroid (intersection of its medians). Now translate the plane to carry that centroid to the given point. (And, as I said, you can now rotate the triangle or dilate about that given point.)
Are other people having issues with chat trying to duplicate our sentences?
Well, I am given a set of open equilateral triangles with base parallel to the x-axis, $a\in\mathbb{R}^{2}$ at the centroid, the length of each side greater than 0. I must show that this is an open neighborhood system.
In order to be an open neighborhood system, it must satisfy, first, that this set is not $\emptyset$.
Actually, yeah, I can just show that there is at least one member.
17:38
Oh, so actual interiors of the triangles ...
Oh, base parallel to the $x$-axis. So that takes out my rotations.
But my suggested argument still is fine. You could also, starting at a point, construct with compass and straightedge an equilateral triangle with that point as centroid, but I don't think you're required to do that.
@TedShifrin Ted :D
Greetings, @Kasmir.
Hello ! I have a question !
actually more than one :D
How can I compute a fourir series?
Using the integrals that compute the coefficients.
Can you please tell me like hmm that notation in few words
17:40
No.
okay grrrrr
ill try to solve one and come back at you -.-
:)
I don't know the notation of your course, and you can figure this out.
Yes yes ! am just not having the book yet
Lecture notes?
so only what i wrote on lecture ><
17:41
You can find formulas in my YouTube lecture I mentioned. But they may not be consistent with your course.
well , kind of :'D i remeber that we have to integrate something
wait what
you had lectures on fourir?
I told you weeks ago.
One lecture.
You said you would go find it.
YOu said u did TEACHED that course'
17:42
Your memory is worse than mine.
i never thought it was recorded
no i remeber asking you about it and ur answer
I said I did one lecture in that Multivariable Math class (showing them how it was doing projections, which we did in detail).
but I understood that was only course u teached and never recorded
Nice :D
You asked if I had taught a course on Fourier series. I said no to that.
becasue from what i understood they are like orthonormal bases
for function space
17:43
They're an expansion with respect to an orthonormal basis, yes.
okay thanks sir! :'D
is it really a basis?
in the analytic sense, yes
Sup leaky !
I mean, doesn't it only work for periodic functions?
17:45
You can turn any function in $L^2[0,1]$ into a periodic function if you wish.
I see
On all of $\Bbb R$ one does Fourier transform, not series.
oh wow
I never noticed
You can even heuristically derive the Fourier transform as a limit of Fourier series on expanding intervals $[-N,N]$.
But on @LeakyNun s point: Is there anything at all that suggests it should have to do something with periodicity?
I ask since there is indeed also in quantum mechanical wavefunctions (which form a Hilberst space basis cum grano salis) something which puts them close to periodic functions.
And going from position to momentum space e.g. corresponds to FT as well, I think
The something is that the higher the energy of the states (=wave fcuntions) is the more nodal planes they have. In deed the numer of nodal planes in many problems simply increases by one when goind from $\psi_n$ to $\psi_{n+1}$. In that way there is some similarity to periodic functions to it.
18:02
No, periodicity is a red herring. It's about $L^2$ functions on a finite interval.
In applications one often considers their extension to periodic functions on $\Bbb R$.
applications
You might look up the history of why Fourier was interested in this in the first place. :)
heat conduction?
Yup ... heat equation ...
I mean it relates "curvature" to change in time, by that periodic functions come into play I guess
Its almost the Schrödinger equation just that this works with complex time
18:10
I'm not sure periodic functions are the point, yet again. We're just using $e^{ikx}$ as an orthogonal basis for $L^2[0,2\pi]$ or $L^2[-\pi,\pi]$.
And then there are orthogonal polynomials, as well. I guess you can use these a basis as well.
They seem to be more natural for numerical analysis questions than for PDE applications.
can i just apply gram-schmidt on 1,x,x^2,x^3,...?
Once you specify the interval and the inner product, sure.
what would I get?
18:13
they'd not be orthogonal, pairwise, I guess
@Rudi: Gram-Schmidt gives you an orthogonal basis.
Unless you don't do it right.
Yes, but then you have lin. combs of @LeakyNun s polys
well, of course
oh, I can make 1,x,x^2,x^3,... orthogonal, right
by choosing the right inner product
that's interesting
then I guess you'd get orthogonal polynomials, in case you use the right inner prod.
18:15
I was thinking of $\int fg$
@LeakyNun Sure, and you even get a unique inner product if you require them to be orthonormal
$\int \bar{f} g dx$
but I can just treat it as $\Bbb R^n$ as $n \to \infty$
i.e. $\Bbb R^\omega$
hi @AlessandroCodenotti
Hi @Alessandro ... how's your Scottish ear?
18:16
Hi @AlessandroCodenotti
Sometimes I do wonder about orthnormal basis in inner product spaces. Strictly speaking, these hilbert basis can only span a dense set of the parent space, so why we never need to worry about the elements this dense set missed out, is is because they are almost always not $L^2$?
Hey @Alessandro
$L^2$ is complete.
@TobiasKildetoft would it work the other way round? Defining $1,x^2,x^3,...$ orthogonal and searching an inner product
hi @ÍgjøgnumMeg
18:19
Hey @Ted :)
and @Rudi
and @Leaky etc. etc.
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Hoi!
@Rudi_Birnbaum Sure (if you add $x$). Given any basis, there is a unique bilinear form which makes that basis orthonormal
@Rudi grüaß di :)
(similarly a unique sesquilinear one if you want that instead)
Ted: Ah right, then I can always cauchy sequence and converge to the elements outside this dense set
18:20
@TobiasKildetoft What would be an explicit form?
OK, I need to get going. Fun times ... going to the ophthalmologist.
Bubye.
@ÍgjøgnumMeg goe'e morge'
of that inner product?
@Rudi_Birnbaum It would just look like the "standard" one in the chosen basis, multiplying coefficients and then adding
@TedShifrin Bye ond good luck - hate them ..
18:21
@Rudi_Birnbaum $\langle \sum a_i x^i, \sum b_i x^i \rangle = \sum a_i b_i$
@Leaky friesisch?
@TobiasKildetoft Ah OK!
@ÍgjøgnumMeg nein, hollandisch
@LeakyNun nice :-)
Ah okey!
18:22
@Secret you're refering to the arcane "continuum"?
You know how much I LOVE infinities especially uncountable ones
@Leaky Gott kvøld! lol
dansk?
so yeah, the thought process lead me to that question
Føroyskt :) Although I think it's the same in Danish
Might be Godt kvøld
18:23
@ÍgjøgnumMeg It is not even close
in Danish
and Ted answered it with L^2 is complete, meaning we can always recover those elements with a limit operation
@Tobias aw
lmao the real Dane comes
What do you guys say?
18:24
God aften
Lawl
shows how much danish I know
it is closer in Swedish
Yis I speak Swedish
God afton
@Rudi_Birnbaum Or kväll
18:24
Ja ochså taler lite svensk!
so I always just assume I know Danish phrases by taking Swedish phrases and interspersing them with the odd "D"
Danish, Norwegian, and Swedish are North Germanic languages. The first two share the same alphabet.
(To be solved later) Whether an inaccessible cardinality inner product space can have a dense orthonormal basis of cardinality less than inaccessible
2
@TobiasKildetoft tak
18:26
@ÍgjøgnumMeg I do actually speak Swedish decently (apart from my terrible pronunciation especially of anything involving "sj")
@TobiasKildetoft Men jag har inte hört det ...
hört?? is that even a swedish letter
@Tobias you can just pronounce them like people in Skåne
lol
Kamelåså
@Leaky yes it is
lol
18:27
öåy
are their "Umlauts"
I see
@Rudi and ä
right!
actually äöy
and å is not really an Umlaut is it?
Strangely, among all the Germanic and Romance languages, it seems that German is the hardest for the English speaker to learn. I don't know why.
No it's a different sound
18:28
@JasperLoy have you tried Danish?
@JasperLoy guess its most conservative except islandic
conservative... have you tried Plattduutsch?
@JasperLoy with the most structure in the Grammar
@LeakyNun No, but that comment was based on some statistics I saw on effectivelanguagelearning.com.
But thats an old puzzle of mine: Why do older languages show more structure?
18:29
@Rudi it's some kind of smoothing effect I think
the older a language becomes the lazier speech becomes I guess?
@ÍgjøgnumMeg but how did it start?
@LeakyNun the gist?
And then Finnish and Hungarian are strange. They belong to the Uralic family. And they are supposed to be even harder than the Slavic languages Russian, Polish, and Ukrainian.
@ÍgjøgnumMeg don't know. I have heared that its beacause in former times people spoke less ...
18:31
@Rudi perhaps!
and yes so it didn't smooth out that strongly ...
@JasperLoy but thats not surprising,
Slavic is indogermanic
@LeakyNun I just got a new laptop with a HD camera. I will start making some youtube videos again soon. This time, it will be clearer and you can see my pimples.
while finnourgic is the sister of indoeuropean
@Jasper I think Finnish is often cited as a really difficult language because of how many cases they have, but the cases (for the most part) simply replace prepositions
@Rudi_Birnbaum honestly, I watched this so long ago, I forgot
18:33
it's the same with Turkish
15 cases, more than 80 gradiations for each case ... and so on
each case has a special meaning for each word and so on
Anyway, I don't know much about language. I just read various websites on languages.
Right, but a lot of the cases just replace prepositions so it's as hard as learning prepositions
Finns eat on the table and you have to learn that as well
@ÍgjøgnumMeg well the case changes the interior of the word
thats "gradation"
But I do recommend the Assimil courses for learning languages. Many polyglots use them to learn quickly.
18:34
Yes, but the point is that you replace prepositions with infixes/suffixes/prefixes
@Rudi Talo is house, Talossa is "in the house", "Talolla" is "at the house" etc. etc.
@ÍgjøgnumMeg So I have spent about 3 years of my life in Finland and hardly speak any sentences ..
so instead of learning words for "in, at" etc. you learn how the word changes in this wa
y
not saying it's easy lol
@ÍgjøgnumMeg But thats also because most of my friends are swedish speaking
just saying it's kinda misunderstood hahaha
Oh, and finally, Chinese, Japanese, Korean, and Arabic are the hardest languages to learn.
18:37
@ÍgjøgnumMeg yeah in principle your're right but then how to answer the question why its that hard ...
@Rudi sure lol, it's obviously a big difference from Germanic languages
@JasperLoy yeah, but it also depends
@Jasper again, one has to define difficulty
@ÍgjøgnumMeg but what in a way also can help
the writing systems are very different and the vocabulary etc. but I'm fairly sure the grammar of Chinese is not hard at all (pls back me up @Leaky)
18:38
Actually, I speak English and Chinese, but that's because I learnt both for at least a decade.
eg Swedish word are for me a bit hard since they are so close tpo German or English but often vary little in the meaning
@Jasper nice
as for Finish either you know it or you don't
@Rudi Right! The word "eventuell" was always weird for me
lol
@ÍgjøgnumMeg right, Chinese doesn't inflect words
18:39
ficka
Know Finnish or you are finished, lol.
@Leaky nor does it conjugate verbs right?
@Rudi hahaha ficklampa
right
@ÍgjøgnumMeg lol rofl
@LeakyNun do you have idea that how to show re(z^3) is continuous complex function?
18:39
@JasperLoy wow!
@Rudi A good one is "It's not the fart that kills, it's the smäll"
2
@Rudi_Birnbaum Not to be confused with fika
@ÍgjøgnumMeg hahaha
@Rudi_Birnbaum Forced by the system, but shan't say where I am from.
@Ninjahatori z is continuous, multiplication of continuous functions is continuous, so z^3 is continuous, and then show that Re is continuous (well it's just the projection map R^2 -> R), and then just compose them together
18:40
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Nice. Here we have lifts saying "I fart"
@Tobias lol
@TobiasKildetoft In the lift? That's just mean
We can say that $A\subseteq B\iff A-B=\emptyset$, right?
It has to be as $B^{\complement} \not \supseteq A$
@AbdullahUYU yes
18:46
What does the the term in the left-hand side mean? @Secret
B complement
@Alessandro checked the example $\lvert a \rvert_\mathfrak{p} = \left(\frac{1}{N \mathfrak{p}}\right)^{\operatorname{ord}_\mathfrak{p}(a)}$ is an absolute value on a number field $K$ with a prime $\mathfrak{p}$ today
ergh
on a number field
right
that's what I meant
What do I need to check to assure that a collection of sets defines a neighborhood system of $\mathbb{R}$? I have a definition for an open neighborhood system, but not a general neighborhood system.
18:57
@LeakyNun any idea about branch point and reiman sheet?
what do you mean
suppose I have function root(z-a) then what are branch point and reimann sheets are there?
Riemann
pls
it's a name
suppose I have function root(z-a) then what are branch point and Reimann sheets are there?
lmao
I have no idea anyway
19:06
Its okay thank you for reply
19:49
@ÍgjøgnumMeg I've been a tourist today so I didn't get much (or any) work done
@LeakyNun There's a name for the sequence you get for Gram–Schmidting $x^n$ but I forget what it is
I see
hola
@Alessandro nice lol, how was it?
What part of Scotland are you in?
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=KeRKgp-qc-k

Happy black metal
@ÍgjøgnumMeg Aberdeen, it's mostly gray, it looks a lot like I expected a Scottish city to look like
@Alessandro hahah fair, that's cool
20:00
Extremely basic question but I'm having a bit of trouble visualizing the associated matrix for a linear map of polynomials. If I have a transformation T(a + bx + cx^2): -b + bx - bx^2, what does the matrix look like? Or to go directly to my problem, how do I evaluate the standard basis vector (1)?
@Secret To make it clear, you're saying one of the sides has to be $B^{\complement}\not\supseteq A$. So $B^{\complement}\not\supseteq A\iff$ what?
@AlessandroCodenotti you mean grey
If I write "the color grey" will people get very confused on whether I'm American or British?
A lot of people don't really care
and it doesn't matter that much rofl
if at all
lol
the colour gray
20:14
@LeakyNun Can you make sense of chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/46720428#46720428 regarding what I proposed?
does it even matter
Well, I think that what I say is true and I also agree with you.
But I am trying to relate it.
So, I think "gray" vs "grey" is one of those things that people don't consciously recognize as American vs British
Like, every time I spell it I agonize a bit and just choose one, also with traveling vs travelling
gray is my favorite colour
20:21
I realize my question might be strikingly basic, but all the easier to answer accordingly, no...?
well first you need to choose a basis for your space of polynomials
Night all!
good night
If $f$ and $h$ are real-valued functions, is it true that $\max(f,g) = \frac{f+g+|f-g|}{2}$ and $\min(f,g) = \frac{f+g-|f-g|}{2}$?
@mercio Of course, but taking the standard basis
20:25
which is ?
{(1),(x),(x2)}
For P2[x] anyway
okay
then indeed, what is T(1) ?
Well if 1 could be seen as (1 0 0) isn't it just 0?
well if I put a=1 b=0 and c=0 in the line that defines T i guess it says that T(1) = 0 ?
But it should be -b I guess. I'm not visualizing it properly
Right
20:30
and the coordinates of 0 in the basis are (0 0 0), right ?
so that's your first column
But is the matrix for T (sorry, I'm on my phone) a column -1 0 0, then a column 0 1 0 and finally 0 0 -1?
no ?
Sorry, my chat seems to be lagging, I hadn't seen your previous message
I see
But then it would be (0 0 0), (0 1 0) and (0 0 0)?
As the same would happen with x2
that middle column would be wrong
what is T(x) ?
b
bx rather
20:40
look at the line defining T again
T(a + bx + cx^2): -b + bx - bx^2
Ah... Would the middle column be (-1 1 -1)?
yes
OK, I understand now. Thank you. To prove it's a projection, is it sufficient to show that the matrix multiplied by itself returns itself?
I appreciate your patience!
yes that would be enough
@LeakyNun Besides, $B^{\complement}\not\supseteq A\iff A-B=\emptyset$ is not true, take $A=\{a_1, b_1\}, B=\{b_1\}$ for example.
20:46
ok
In that case, $B^{\complement}\not\supseteq A$ but $A-B\neq\emptyset$.
Ah, I suffered :)
21:02
Does anyone have a definition for a neighborhood system, as opposed to an open neighborhood system?
Dunno if this is obvious or not: for two absolute values $\lvert \cdot \rvert_1$ and $\lvert \cdot \rvert_2$ on a field $K$, if $\lvert \cdot \rvert_2 = \lvert \cdot \rvert_1^a$ for some $a > 0$ then $\lvert \cdot \rvert_1$ and $\lvert \cdot \rvert_2$ define the same topology on $K$, this is because in the open balls $U(b, \varepsilon) = \lbrace x \in K : \lvert x - b\rvert_2 < \varepsilon \rbrace$ we can just replace $\lvert x - b\rvert_2$ with $\lvert x - b \rvert_1^a < \varepsilon$ and
take $\varepsilon^\prime := \varepsilon^{\frac{1}{a}}$
or?
America - GRAY
England - GREY
(@LeakyNun @AlessandroCodenotti @Daminark)
Canada - uh, GREhY?
nice
@ÍgjøgnumMeg why are we not discussing this in that chatroom?
@Leaky no idea rofl
and to your question, yes it is obvious
21:13
okay good, I thought so :P Probably just asking it here because it's more of a question about topology than about local fields
everything is about local fields
rofl, i was supposed to be going to sleep and this popped into my head
Guess I'll learn Ostrowski's theorem tomorrow, then saturday I can read about the weak approximation theorem, attempt some exercises, then graduate on monday
lol
> graduate on monday
I graduate on monday btw
Congrats, @ÍgjøgnumMeg
21:19
Thanks @Abdullah :)
0
Q: An affine plane and an affine line that share a generator

RichardWith the parameter $h\in\Bbb R$, consider in the affine space $\Bbb A^4$ the system $$\begin{cases}x+2y-+2z+w=5 \\x+y-hz=6 \\ -x+hy+2z+(h+1)w=h+1. \end{cases}$$Calling $\Sigma_h$ the set of solutions, I'm asked to find the hyperplane containing $\Sigma_1$ and $\Sigma_{-4}$. Now, I've found those...

Please someone
22:13
In the last displayed equation, how do they get \mu^*(E)+\epsilon\ge \mu(B\cap A)+\mu(B\cap A^c)\ge \mu^*(E\cap A)+\mu^*(E\cap A^c)? math.stackexchange.com/questions/2443845/…
Life up until Graduation
@ÍgjøgnumMeg
23:02
@rschwieb I don't want any sympathy but I think they are going to close the question and once if they close it I think my idea will lost forever. Please tell me the way, how can I communicate with the authority to se my question once
23:34
How do I show that $1, -72x + x^2, -39x + x^3, -203x + x^4,x + 72x^2+39x^3+203x^4$ is a basis for $\mathcal{P}_4(\Bbb{C})$ without having much tools/theorems/heavy machinery at my disposal?
I don't think a calculator is expected either...Seems like a ridiculous problem...
@user193319 so, you know that $\{1, x, x^3, x^3, x^4\}$ is a basis
So then map $1$ to $1$, $x$ to $-72x + x^2$, and so on, and show that it's invertible.
It'll amount to either using row reduction to compute rank of the associated matrix or taking a determinant
Less than pleasant since it's 5x5 but it can be done by hand
...Hmm...Unfortunately we haven't discussed invertiblity or linear maps yet...which is why I say it seems like a horrible problem...I was going to try to show that $x$, $x^3$, etc. can be written in the span of the other vectors, but that's just awful...
hi Demonark
23:40
Obviously $1$ is in the span of them, so that's no problem...
Oh rip
Hey Ted!
What criteria do you have? Just linear independence/span?
You can reduce to 4x4 easily enough ... the constants are not needed to be checked.
Okay so looking at the vectors in question it is easy
The numbers match up nicely
Or whoops I misread, F
The only thing I can think of is to prove a more general result: if $v_1,..,v_5$ is a basis for some vector space $V$, then $v_1, a_1v_1+v_2, a_2v_1+v_3,a_3v_1+v_4, b_2v_2+b_3v_3+b_4v_4$ is a basis...
that looks just as horrible...
Okay so what I'd recommend doing here is to still make use of these numbers, if you take the last guy, subtract 203 times the second to last guy, and so on, you'll kill all the terms of the last guy except for x, so this gives you x in the span
Once you know that, then the others are dominoes
23:46
Okay. I'll give it a try. Thanks!
I like how Ted immediately gave up teaching :P
rip demonark
02:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

« first day (2962 days earlier)      last day (2357 days later) »