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02:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

02:38
Under "Fun", question 1 about the Lie bracket.
Is this not wrong?
Basically says that $[[A,B]^2,C] = 0$ for all $2\times 2$ matrices.
I am trying to figure what it wanted to say.
What's a counterexample?
I used [1,2;3,4] and [5,6;7,8]
There are three variables, what's your input?
I think the statement is true.
For A, B
I think [A,B]^2 is a multiple of the identity.
02:47
For $[A,B]^2$ you then get $\begin{bmatrix}16&144\\144&16\end{bmatrix}$
Let me double check
Wolfram gives me that too.
But I don't understand. I seem to be able to also prove that is impossible.
Aha!
[A,B] is [-4,12;12,4]. Now, when we compute that squared on Wolfram, it seems to be squaring the coefficients, not doing matrix multiplication.
Why does wolfram do that
WHY
No idea.
Spite?
02:51
Spite it is.
MORNING
Here was my proof. 1) Commutators are traceless. Therefore I can write the matrix [A,B] as [a,b;c,-a]. I squared that by hand and got $(a^2+bc) * I$.
Therefore $[A,B]^2$ commutes with everything.
i got a question
WTF IS AN INVERSE LIMIT
Flip that limit upside down.
Yeah mike, that was what I had and then I thought it was wrong because when I tested it in wolfram, it gives me nonsense.
Lesson is to never trust a computer
So goodbye proof assistants, wolfram put me off of anything remotely mechanical.
NO MORE SLIDE RULE
02:56
Actually here is a less bashy proof.
First put it in Jordan form. It's still traceless and squares to a multiple of the identity.
Easier computation. One variable.
Heh. That's a good one.
Ah, well thanks for finding out the issue, @MikeMiller
Talk to you later!
@MikeMiller no that definatly wasnt it but the arrow did go the wrong way
@MatheinBoulomenos get to do my C* algebras this semester going to die
 
2 hours later…
05:29
Please vote to undelete this post:
This post has 10,920 times views and 2 years, 7 months old.
05:45
Accidentally, I clicked on 'Mobile' button given in lower bar. Now, its showing display like in Mobile, how can I return to Desktop view ??
Solved, thanks.
06:26
cant see the post
@Faust , you need 10,000 reputations to view and vote for a deleted post.
37
Q: How do you view deleted questions?

Click Upvote10k rep members are allowed to see deleted questions, is there a way to find questions that were deleted or to see a list of them somewhere? Thanks.

07:02
Hi, I am trying to learn Z-transforms, could you guys suggest any good reference for learning it? Textbooks or websites would be great
07:31
differential geometry or measure is a must on ones knowlegde
measurre theory*
@ManolisLyviakis Depends on what you want to do
not very interested in either
i just have to pick one of those 2 for the semester
i tink i wanna ready algebra :p
either one could be useful for algebra depending on the branch of algebra
where does measure theory come up?
In stuff like automorphism representations, where a lot of things are done by integrating over a group with respect to a suitable measure
07:41
well i already know some differential geometry
i could just be better at that :P
I would say that of the two, differential geometry is the one I most often wish I knew more about.
yeah i think measure theory is too specific :p
i mean i can learn a thing or 2 when im in need
but im not really interested about its foundation. i may use it as a tool though
also what i mean by differential geometry it is not in the broad sense of manifolds. Its surfaces/curves and geodesics gaussian curvature fundamental forms etc.
@LeakyNun how to show that every element in field is diffrence of two squares?
interesting question
if the field is not characteristic two, then $a = a \times 1 = \left(\frac{a+1}2\right)^2 - \left(\frac{a-1}2\right)^2$
I don't think it's true in $\Bbb F_2(t)$
is $t$ a difference of two squares in $\Bbb F_2(t)$?
07:59
right thank you
what???
you asked me how to show
and when I doubted it you said right thank you?
so you were tricking me?
for your argument for field of characterstic not 2
but that's not a complete answer
actually I am interseted in field with characterstic not equal to two because I am dealing with bilinear form and quadratic form correspondance
...
whatever
08:03
for characterstic 2 a^2+b^2=(a+b)^2 so a^2=(a+b)^2-b^2 so this may not seems true in characterstic 2
@LeakyNun sorry for mistake
I'm confused now, why does that mean that it's not true?
oh ok
right
we know that $t$ is not a square in $\Bbb F_2(t)$
We have the rings $R_1, R_2$, the elements $a,b\in R_1$, the ideal $I=(a)$ of $R_1$ and a ring homomorphism $f:R_1\rightarrow R_2$. It is given that $\ker f=I$. It holds in $R_1$ that $b\mid a$ but not that $a\mid b$.

If $b$ is not a prime in $R_1$ then is $R_2$ an integral domain?

For that we have to know if the image of a prime element is also prime or not?
so if $t=a^2-b^2$ then $t=(a+b)(a-b) = (a+b)^2$
thanks @Ashcatcham
that was interesting
all right nice talking to you
ssk
ssk
08:38
I am learning about gaussian processes and stationary processes. Unfortunately, I am the only one learning this subject in my place. Is there anybody who is also currently studying these subjects and would like to discuss regularly.
 
2 hours later…
10:47
Quick question. Can the zero vector be in the form of <0,0>
@usukidoll What do the brackets mean there?
11:04
I was in an inner product space
<x, x> is $\mid x \mid^{2}$
@TobiasKildetoft
@usukidoll then no, because the zero vector lives in a different place that the value of an inner product
Or do you mean whether the zero vector is determined by the fact that it has $0$ as inner product with itself?
0 like nothing
I have no idea what that last sentence should mean
11:22
0
Q: What is the value for $ 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 + ... $?

mickConsider the sum of all primes $$ A = 2 + 3 + 5 + 7 + 11 + 13 + 17 + ... $$ This is divergent , so we must use a summability method. What is the best value for $A$ ? I suggest using zeta regularization $$ \zeta(z) = \sum_n \space p_n \space n^{-z} $$ $$ A = \zeta(0) $$ Notice that the pri...

Any ideas ?
@mick What is the definition of a value being "best" for such a sum?
11:35
Adjective: best
  1. superlative form of good: most good.
  2. (Can we date this quote?) William Shakespeare
  3. When he is best, he is a little worse than a man.
  4. (Can we date this quote?) John Milton
  5. Heaven's last, best gift
  6. Most; largest.
Adverb: best
  1. superlative form of well: most well
  2. (Can we date this quote?) John Milton
  3. Thou serpent! That name best befits thee.
  4. (Can we date this quote?) Samuel Taylor Coleridge
  5. He prayeth best, who loveth best / All things both great and small.
  6. At her invitation he outlined for her the succeeding chapters with terse military accuracy ; and what she liked best and best understood was avoidance of that...
 
1 hour later…
12:56
I wonder if user 2646 and user 2236 are both skullpatrol
15 hours ago, by Alessandro Codenotti
Not having a geometric approach: a geometric approach
Are there any $\Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R$ versions of the Rolle theorem?
5
Q: Prove an analog of Rolle's theorem for several variables

Eric AuldOn p. 135 of Buck's Advanced Calculus, he asks the reader to prove an analog of Rolle's theorem for functions of two variables (I suspect the number two is arbitrary). The hint is to assume that $f=0$ on the boundary of a bounded open set, and I belive what he's looking for is that if $f\in $ $C...

You need more conditions on the boundary to ensure that
13:48
Can someone tell me how to see which of sinx or arcsin(sinx) is bigger from 0to π.... Any hint
The graph of arcsin(sinx) is your=x from 0 you π/2 and y=-x+2π but I can't seem to compare them
@GENESECT first, you should note how both functions behave for x<pi/2 compared with x<pi/2. For instance, how are sin(x) and sin(pi-x) related?
sinx and sin(pi-x) are identical functions... right
right.
that in turns means that arcsin(sin(pi-x)) and arcsin(sin(x)) are identical as well
which means that if arcsin(sin(x)) > sin(x) for 0<x<pi/2, then that's also true for pi/2<x<pi
hence it's enough to look at 0<x<pi/2
in which case you're trying to show that x>sin(x) for 0<x<pi/2
13:58
Okay
(In fact, x>sin(x) is true for all x>0. But you're only interested in 0<x<pi/2 for the present purpose.)
In 0<x<π\2, the graph of arc sinx is coming greater then because it's just y=x in that interval
Sure. If you already have an argument that x>sin(x) on that interval, then you're done.
Got it. Thanks
np
@AkivaWeinberger amusingly, I notice that you've got an answer regarding how to prove that inequality
I got a chuckle out of the last line :P
14:03
Can confirm
I was
lol
most amusing typo I saw recently was somebody doing $\epsilon_{jam}$ instead of $\epsilon_{jkm}$
jam on
Oh wait
Is $\pi_4(S^2)=\Bbb Z_2$ and $\pi_2(SO(3))=\Bbb Z_2$ not a coincidence??
Or maybe the first one should be $\pi_4(S^3)$
of course not. how could it be? (I don't actually know.)
(which is also $\Bbb Z_2$)
Ugh, stupid high dimensional visualizations
Erm, yeah it should be $\pi_4(S^3)$ I think
I'm not sure what kind of mechanism one would look for to relate $\pi_4$ of one space to $\pi_2$ of another
14:10
but now my head hurts
$\pi_4$ and $\pi_3$, I could understand
@Semiclassical It's an annoying sequence of pictures
Or, um
Let $x$ be the generator of $\pi_3(S^3)$
if Balarka was around I'd bug him about it
14:11
Then an element of $\pi_4(S^3)$ is a weird sequence that goes from $0$ to stuffs and back to $0$
So morph $0$ into $x+(-x)$
the latter of which kinda looks like two spheres
er, hyperspheres
joined at a basepoint
Now rotate one of the hyperspheres 360 deg
(aka rotate its equator, which is a sphere, 360 deg
and the rest of the hypersphere rotates along with it keeping the basepoint stationary)
and then morph $x+(-x)$ back into $0$
I'm going to just smile and nod
@Semiclassical welcome to the club..
@AkivaWeinberger Is that even close to a full rotation in 4D space?
Why wouldn't it be?
Rotations in hyperspace, now that's something I;ve never tried imagining.
Oh yeah they can be complicated
like you can rotated along two planes at the same time
so I don't know how you'd measure the degrees there
but here I'm not doing that
14:16
Rotations are inherently planar.
Like figure skaters on ice stay on the ice.
If your four axes are w, x, y, and z, try rotating on the wx-plane at the same time as rotating on the yz-plane
At most I'd say you can jump in the air and rotate along the plane which contains the line $z = sqrt(x^2+y^2)$
I recommend purchasing a 4D ball and playing with it
(/s)
In 4D, I can't imagine the figure skater "curving/slanting" that much.
In 4D, you can't imagine the figure skater
14:19
@AkivaWeinberger How so? It'll look like a normal 3D ball when its stopped at a phase passing through normal space.
@AkivaWeinberger You can imagine this 2D text in a 3D world, right? 3D objects in a 4D world is not much of a long shot.
I'm talking about applying 4th dimensional rotation on 3D objects, not just 4D.
Quick question, but is $\{\o , \{a\}, S\} \subseteq \{\o , \{a, b\}, S\}$ ?
Hmmm, does the empty set symbol not work in chat? Or am I using the wrong code?
Try \emptyset
$\{\emptyset , \{a\}, S\} \subseteq \{\emptyset , \{a, b\}, S\}$
That works
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger: I think the following lemma is also true:
Also \varnothing $\varnothing$
$\emptyset\varnothing$
14:26
Now, is this true? Or are $\{a\}$ and $\{a,b\}$ not comparable?
I think that they should be, but I want to be sure.
@Rithaniel It is not true.
user131753
"Let $(X,\tau_X)$ and $(Y,τ_Y)$ be topological spaces. Let $f,g:I→Y$ be two continuous functions. Then $f$ and $g$ are homotopic iff there is a path between $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ for all $x∈I$."
There exists an element of the first set that is not an element of the second
Okay, thank you @Akiva
Is $\{a\}\in \{\emptyset,\{a,b\},S\}$? @Rithaniel
14:27
$\{a\}$ is an element of the first set, but the second set only has the three elements $\emptyset$, $\{a,b\}$, and $S$
user131753
The lemma that we will need to prove this is as follows:
None of which equal $\{a\}$
unless $S=\{a\}$ I guess
@user170039 Does $f(0)=g(0)$ and $f(1)=g(1)$? Are they held constant throughout the homotopy?
Nah, S is the whole set, so $S = \{a\}$ would imply that $\{a,b\}$ could not exist.
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger Nope.
user131753
Well let me first elaborate the lemma which I think will most likely be true (but I am lacking a proof of it).
14:30
Wait, so $S=\{\emptyset,\{a,b\},S\}$?
$S\in S$ isn't actually allowed in ZFC set theory
(Well, there exist other set theories that allow it but they're weird)
user131753
"Let $(X,τ_X)$ and $(Y,τ_Y)$ be topological spaces. Let $f,g:X→Y$ be two continuous functions. Then $f$ and $g$ are homotopic iff there is a path between $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ for all $x∈X$."
user131753
Sorry @AkivaWeinberger, see the above corrected version of the theorem that I want to prove.
user131753
The lemma is,
Well, nah, I misspoke. These are topologies on a set S.
Ahh
So $S=\{a,b,\text{possibly }c\}$ or something?
user131753
14:34
"Let $(X,τ_X)$ and $(Y,τ_Y)$ be topological spaces. Let $f,g:X→Y$ be two continuous functions. Then $f$ and $g$ are homotopic iff there is family $\mathscr{F}:=\{\varphi_x:I\to Y\mid x\in X\}$ such that $\varphi_x$ is a path connecting $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ for all $x\in X$."
@user170039 That seems wrong. Consider $X=S^1$ (a loop) and $Y$ an annulus.
Yeah, the task I'm assigned with is finding all topologies on $\{a,b,c\}$ and showing how they relate in coarseness/fineness.
if $Y$ is path connected there always is a path between $f(x)$ and $g(x)$
which would make every function homotopic to each other according to your lemma
user131753
Yes. Ok.
user131753
14:36
Very silly mistake.
2 mins ago, by user 170039
"Let $(X,τ_X)$ and $(Y,τ_Y)$ be topological spaces. Let $f,g:X→Y$ be two continuous functions. Then $f$ and $g$ are homotopic iff there is family $\mathscr{F}:=\{\varphi_x:I\to Y\mid x\in X\}$ such that $\varphi_x$ is a path connecting $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ for all $x\in X$."
Basically, you need it so that, if $x$ is close to $y$, then $\varphi_x$ is close to $\varphi_y$, in a sense.
And that's what the definition of homotopy makes rigorous.
I found nine types, which I think is all of them, with a total of 26 total topologies among these types.
$\varphi_x(t)$ is essentially $h_t(x)$.
(or $h(t,x)$, where $h$ is the function from $I\times X$ to $Y$)
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger Is it? Here when you are defining $\varphi_x$, your $x$ is fixed but when you are defining $h_t$, your $t$ is fixed.
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger Sorry, but I don't understand. Can you elaborate?
14:40
$\varphi_x(t)$ and $h_t(x)$ are points, not functions
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger: I meant this comment.
@user170039 Perhaps it's useful to think about a specific counterexample
Here, $Y$ is an annulus, and $X$ is a circle
I've drawn the images of two maps from the circle to the annulus
These maps are not homotopic
However, every point is path-connected to every other point.
What went wrong?
Think about what it would look like if you drew a path from $f(x)$ to $g(x)$ for every $x$
There would be two points on $S^1$, call them $x$ and $y$, such that $x$ and $y$ are really close to each other (and thus $f(x)$ and $f(y)$ are close to each other), but $\varphi_x$ is a path that goes one way around the hole and $\varphi_y$ is a path that goes another way around the hole
nice example
Wish drawing and posting images was more efficient
I think I have tons of random math drawings on my Imgur account
and its kinda mandatory when explaining algebraic topology
14:50
I wonder if that's public
the question is why the first curve is not homotopic to S1?
Also, technically those both should have orientations but whatever
Like I could have made it so that $f$ is a loop that goes clockwise around the hole and $g$ is a loop that goes counterclockwise
isnt the problem that the homotopy wont be able to map the self intersection?
No, the self-intersection is fine
14:56
For example, the maps represented by the bottom two images there are homotopic
ohh i get it
Let me share another drawing I made yesterday but with no context
(Completely unrelated)
(Uh, those are supposed to be surfaces in 3D space but I can't really draw them)
(Surfaces of revolution across the y-axis)
A drawing tablet may be useful for you @AkivaWeinberger
With an appropriate software that automatically uploads to a image hosting service like imgur.
That can be interesting as a workflow.
As opposed to the iPhone I'm currently using
That's a thing I might get just 'cause it sounds cool
(and then almost never use)
:) Actually, I'm saying because I have the dream of such a workflow.
Requires a bit of coding though.
But yeah, don't need to be whimsical for no reason :)
15:09
Or you can draw on a whiteboard and photograph it with an iPhone scanner app
Ex:
(scanner app converts anything dark enough to pure black and anything light enough to pure white)
(If this were something like Discord, I wouldn't even have to upload to Imgur, I could just post from my camera roll directly)
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger I can feel it but can't rigorously formulate it.
That's also a good solution.
user131753
It's clear that the notion of such a family as I have mentioned earlier is strictly weaker than that of homotopy.
user131753
But I can't understand what conditions I will need to make it equivalent to homotopy.
user131753
I am particularly interested in this kind of definition because of it's nice intuitive appeal.
15:26
You need $(t,x)\mapsto\phi_x(t)$ to be a continuous function of two variables
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger Sorry, but can you be more precise?
user131753
I mean, I need a function $f:I\times X\to Y$ such that...
The function $h:I\times X\to Y$ defined by $h(t,x)=\varphi_x(t)$ (with $\varphi$ being defined as you did earlier) must be a continuous function
($h$, $f$, same thing)
Incidentally, a note on functions on two variables
Say we have a function $f:A\times B\to C$
eg $f(a,b)=c$
We can also write this as a family of functions
$f_{a,-}$ defined by $f_{a,-}(b)=f(a,b)$
and as another family of functions
$f_{-,b}$ defined by $f_{-,b}(a)=f(a,b)$
(That's not standard notation but it's the best thing I can think of)
The former is functions you get by taking $a$ constant, the latter is functions you get by taking $b$ constant
$f$ is continuous iff $f_{a,-}$ are continuous for all $a$ and $f_{-,b}$ are continuous for all $b$
---So the upshot is, for your case
your thing failed 'cause you only required $\varphi_x$ to be a continuous function for each $x$ (that maps $t$ to $\varphi_x(t)$)
but you also need the functions that map $x$ to $\varphi_x(t)$ to be continuous for each $t$
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger So I also need a function $f_t:X\to Y$ defined as $f_t(x)=\varphi_x(t)$ to be continuous. Am I right?
user131753
15:39
I see.
user131753
But how can then we prove the modified lemma?
@user170039 Oh, no, I made a silly mistake
A very silly mistake actually
user131753
No problem.
user131753
Just think of my earlier mistake.
$f:A\times B\to C$ is not necessarily continuous, even if its continuous when we keep one variable constant
So it's not actually enough that $f_t$ and $\varphi_x$ are continuous
You really do need to define a map $f:I\times X\to Y$ by $f(t,x)=\varphi_x(t)$ and say that it's continuous
(I hope you remember how the topological space $I\times X$ is defined, incidentally)
user131753
15:45
But when we give the equivalent definition of homotopy using the parameter $t$ why there is no such dependence?
What equivalent definition do you mean?
user131753
"A homotopy between $f,g:X\to Y$ is a family of continuous maps $\{\varphi_t:X\to Y\}$ such that $\varphi_0\equiv f$ and $\varphi_1\equiv g$."
Yeah, that isn't enough.
Otherwise you could just define $\varphi_t\equiv f$ for $t\le\frac12$ and $\varphi_t\equiv g$ for $t>\frac12$.
In other words, $\varphi_t$ would "jump" suddenly from being $f$ to being $g$.
We need to prevent that from happening.
And the way we do that is to demand that the function $I\times X\to Y$ that maps $(t,x)\in I\times X$ to $\varphi_t(x)\in Y$ be a continuous function.
user131753
Here the definition is explicitly written.
user131753
I think I understand now.
16:05
The key phrase is "continuously depending on a parameter $t\in[0,1]$" which is kinda vague
user131753
@AkivaWeinberger Yes. That's what was the reason for my confusion.
user131753
So, how would a modified lemma (of the version which I wanted to prove initially) look like?
user131753
I guess something like the following,
user131753
Let $(X,τ_X)$ and $(Y,τ_Y)$ be topological spaces. Let $f,g:X→Y$ be two continuous functions. Then $f$ and $g$ are homotopic iff there is family $F:=\{φ_x:I→Y∣x∈X\}$ such that $φ_x$ is a path connecting $f(x)$ and $g(x)$ for all $x∈X$ and...(what would be a precise formulation of the additional property @AkivaWeinberger?)
$(t,x)\mapsto\varphi_x(t)$ is a continuous map from $I\times X\to Y$
You can also phrase it in terms of sequential continuity:
If $t_n$ is a sequence of points in $I$ such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}t_n=t$, and $x_n$ is a sequence of points in $X$ such that $\lim_{n\to\infty}x_n=x$, then $\lim_{n\to\infty}\varphi_{x_n}(t_n)=\varphi_x(t)$
user131753
16:17
Ok. Thank you very much @AkivaWeinberger, for having such a long discussion with me. It was really helpful.
user131753
By the way, I was wondering, does there exist any topology on $C(I,Y)$ with the help of which we can define homotopy between $f$ and $g$ as a continuous map from $X$ to $C(I,Y)$ satisfying some additional properties @AkivaWeinberger? (Here $C(I,Y)$ denoted the set of paths from $f(x)$ to $g(x)$.)
I’ve just received the Taxonomist badge (creating a tag used by 50 questions) for the tag "expected-value", but have never created a tag before (as far as I remember) nor have anything to do with probabilty theory. Is this a software mistake, or am I missing something?
In mathematics, the compact-open topology is a topology defined on the set of continuous maps between two topological spaces. The compact-open topology is one of the commonly used topologies on function spaces, and is applied in homotopy theory and functional analysis. It was introduced by Ralph Fox in 1945.If the codomain of the functions under consideration have a uniform structure or a metric structure then the compact-open topology is the "topology of uniform convergence on compact sets." That is to say, a sequence of functions converges in the compact-open topology precisely when it converges...
^I've heard that phrase thrown around on this chat but I don't know much about it
Hopefully it does what you said
@user170039
16:36
can anyone please help me
please ?
many users suddenly down voting one of my question. I think a lot about that question and that I know it will help in future research also. I request you all to see it once and help me. Its my idea and I don't want it lose. help me
16:52
@AdarshKumar Help you what? A net score of -3 is a piddling negative, and people can use their downvotes as they see fit. There aren't even any close votes. I don't see what the problem is. It sounds like you're begging for sympathy upvotes?
@AkivaWeinberger @user170039 the compact-open topology does indeed do the job. Let's assume everything is locally compact and Hausdorff, then one has $C(X \times Y,Z) \cong C(X,C(Y,Z))$ for three spaces $X,Y,Z$ (this is called the "exponential law"), so you get that every continuous map $X \times I \to Y$ corresponds to a continuous map $X \to C(I,Y)$
02:00 - 17:0017:00 - 00:00

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