In mathematics, an ordered field is a field together with a total ordering of its elements that is compatible with the field operations. Historically, the axiomatization of an ordered field was abstracted gradually from the real numbers, by mathematicians including David Hilbert, Otto Hölder and Hans Hahn. This grew eventually into the Artin–Schreier theory of ordered fields and formally real fields.
An ordered field necessarily has characteristic 0 since the elements 0 < 1 < 1 + 1 < 1 + 1 + 1 < ... necessarily are all distinct. Thus, an ordered field necessarily contains an infinite number of...
I understand a lot of math but not so much physics.
So I read about the feynman diagrams and QED and I started to wonder :
How is the g-factor $ 2.002319 $ computed exactly ??
Do we use matrices , differential equations , ... ?
Let $p$ be a prime such that $p+2$ is Also a prime.
Define
$$ f(z) = \sum_p \frac{\ln(p) \space \ln(p+2)}{p^{z/2} \space (p+2)^{z/2}} $$
For $z \neq 1 $ and $re(z) > 1$ this $f(z)$ always converges.
If there are infinitely many prime twins then clearly $f(1)$ diverges.
If there are only fin...
it's the ring of regular functions on the variety yes! Let's say you're considering the variety in $\mathbb{C}^n$ defined by equations $f_1,\ldots,f_m = 0$, then if you think of the polynomial (regular) functions defined on $\mathbb{C}^n$ they're given by $\mathbb{C}[x_1,\ldots,x_n]$. Now if you restrict all such functions to the locus defined by $f_i=0$, then e.g. $g$ and $g+f_i$ will restrict to the same function on the zero locus of $\{f_i=0\}$. So the ring of regular functions is given by $\C[x_1,\ldots,x_n]/(f_1,\ldots,f_m)$.
They don't need the "hot network questions" panel on the RHS most of the questions I see there are definitely written by people under the influence of drugs and totally not related to mathematics!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!!
And just as we can write $Ax + By + C = 0$ or $y-y_0 = m(x-x_0)$, you could also write $\mathrm{e}^{2\log(x)} + \mathrm{e}^{2\log(y)} = 1$ if you wanted.
I mean, another possible definition of complex exponentiation is that $x \mapsto x^s$ is the unique analytic continuation of the the usual real valued exponential function on $(0,\infty)$, continued to $\mathbb{C}$ (minus, perhaps, a branch cut).
Where we can define the real exponential as the unique continuous extension of the rational exponential, and the rational exponential can be defined in terms of integer roots and powers.
No it's just that you were talking about the unit circle and I did post a question that involves the typical identities that ends up having something to do with that
and you asked me specifically so I assumed it was for that post since it's probably my least effort one in a while so there is likely to be something stupid in ir
mainly it's because maple wont share their inbuilt code for how they compute floating point approximations, so every time they have inbuilt code that contradicts other inbuilt code, I'm just going to somehow find a way to complain about it as stack exchange question until they let me debug inbuilt code, so I no longer have a blind spot
its very frustrating to 85 percent of the time be able to trust that the approximations are accurate, and then all of a sudden have it tell you what you have done is false, when you are right, or vice versa
I got a free large iced coffee frappe from maccas drive thru this morning.
@geocalc33 I get that you are trying to understand the equation. I just don't understand what aspect of it you aren't understanding. It is just the equation of a circle, complexified, and written funny.
@XanderHenderson the set of elements consist of: $e^{slnx}+e^{slny}=1$. The set of inverse elements are those reflected about the identity element which is $e^{lnx}+e^{lny}=1$. I'm not sure what the group operation is though...hmm
I think I've reasonably described my question, but I find it hard to think of good tags. Looking through common tags, I'm having a "mhm, I know some of these words..." moment (the math education I had, which isn't much, wasn't in English). Could someone look over the tags of my question to see if there are any missing and whether the ones I chose are correct? math.stackexchange.com/questions/2891706
When I have two groups $G,H$ and I form new group by direct product formation, I do not see immediately that $|G\times H| = |G||H|$. Because its not immediately clear to me that $(g_1,h_1)=(g_2,h_2) \Rightarrow g_1=g_2 \land h_1=h_2$ ($\Leftarrow$ is clear). The new group potentially could have a different "identification operation", no?
@LeakyNun My bad, I wasn't clear, I meant that this is not equivalent to being nowhere dense and is not equivalent to not being dense in any open set. But it's true of course
Is that the correct answer in the picture? According to the definition, The degree of a differential equation is the power of the highest order derivative in the equation, so my question is why the result is not 1 (because the first term is the highest order derivative) but 3?
Is this a valid group? I tried going through all the conditions.
$G$ is the set of equations for $x,y \in \Bbb R(0,1); $
$G= \{ e^{s{\rm ln}(x)}+e^{s{\rm ln(1-y)}}=1; s\in \Bbb R \}$ with addition as the group operation. So for example adding two elements of the group together:
$ e^{2{\rm ln...
The freshman's dream is a name sometimes given to the erroneous equation (x + y)n = xn + yn, where n is a real number (usually a positive integer greater than 1). Beginning students commonly make this error in computing the power of a sum of real numbers. When n = 2, it is easy to see why this is incorrect: (x + y)2 can be correctly computed as x2 + 2xy + y2 using distributivity (commonly known as the FOIL method). For larger positive integer values of n, the correct result is given by the binomial theorem.
The name "freshman's dream" also sometimes refers to the theorem that says that for a prime...
Is there a sort of abstract version of a tensor that you could call type (a, b, ..., k) with k types of indices? I can't see how it would come out of the geometric definition of a tensor, but I wondered if there was a way to create such a thing.
@geocalc33 You again don't understand you own definition: it should hold for all x,y of your domain, while the $s$ are the "indices" for the elements thus fixed for each element ...
@geocalc33 That is not $e^{s_3 ln(x)} + e^{s_3 ln(1-y)} = 1$, but that is what should result, to have at least something looking a bit like closedness ...
And again $e^{s\ln(x)}$ is an oddly written $x^s$, unless you have a specific reason. Then you should tell it.
@geocalc33 No it isnt. When you claim adding your equations is a group operation you have to show that adding $x^{s_1} + (1-y)^{s_1} = 1 $ to $x^{s_2} + (1-y)^{s_2} = 1 $ gives you $x^{s_3} + (1-y)^{s_3} = 1 $ for some specific $s_3$. So you really should be able to rewrite $x^{s_1} + (1-y)^{s_1} + x^{s_2} + (1-y)^{s_2} = 1+1$ into $x^{s_3} + (1-y)^{s_3} = 1 $ and nothing else.
So you essentially have to give $s_3$ ans a function of $s_1$ and $s_2$ such that the equivalence of the two equations hold.
@geocalc33 And anyway how do you know that any of these equations make sense? E.g. if $s=0$ then you have $1+1=1$ that does not hold (no matter for which $x,y$)... Yeah maybe in that sense its makes sense adding nonsensical equations will give you a nonsensical equation. Yeah that's closed ...
@rschwieb It's very unlikely I can answer, but I'd be interested in hearing the question too!
Sanity check: The proof that of the hairy ball theorem can actually be modified to show that whenever $n$ is even there is no continuous map $f\colon S^n\to\Bbb R^{n+1}$ such that $x$ and $f(x)$ are linearly independent for all $x\in S^n$, right?
@geocalc33 and even if you manage to fix that somehow (using modified equations) you will never get anything interesting out of it. If you go to linear equations you will end with linear algebra or well known groups like $(\Bbb R, +)$ and the like ...
@AlessandroCodenotti Sure. I can't ask very sophisticated questions anyhow. The question is about the definition of almost-Dedekind domains (and Dedekind domains indirectly.) I know that some commutative algebra texts have the habit of excluding fields from their definitions.
@AlessandroCodenotti For example, the definition of almost-Dedekind is "a domain where the localizations are discrete valuation rings" But at that rate, I guess a field can't be almost-dedekind
So i'm wondering how problematic it is to relax such definitions to "a discrete valuation ring or a field."
I don't know about almost-Dedekind domains, but I encountered this in Milne's ANT notes just the other day "According to the above definition, a field is a Dedekind domain. In future, we shall exclude fields from being Dedekind domains (conventions vary)."
@AlessandroCodenotti Yeah sigh. I understand that it eliminates the need for some edge cases, but I really want to know if it's still consistent to be inclusive. In other situations, it usually pays off (in terms of hierarchical classification) to be inclusive.
You can say that a Dedekind domain is just a commutative hereditary domain, but it'd be stupid to say "except if it's a field."
Hmmm, i don't immediately see anything that goes wrong without excluding fields
Of course all the stuff about unique factorization of ideals, integral domain with finitely many prime ideals is Dedekind iff pid and the usual results are trivial for fields
@AlessandroCodenotti I guess the question is what happens when you have a domain which has all prime localiztaions that turn out to be fields or discrete valuation rings. Is that even possible?
Sorry, taking some time to process. I'm not used to thinking about domains really. I know that von Neumann regular rings have localizations that are all fields
If you localize an integral domain $A$ at $\mathfrak p$ you get a local ring with $\mathfrak pA_{\mathfrak p}$ as unique maximal ideal, so it is not a field, or am I missing something?
If I localize at a (nonzero) maximal ideal and the result is a field, that means that the maximal ideal is a minimal prime, but that won't fly if there's the zero prime sitting underneath
actually I think you expect to get the field of two elements (unless im being dumb)
you can use the fact localization commutes with quotients, so $A_{\mathfrak{p}} = \mathbb{Z}_{(2)} / (6)\mathbb{Z}_{(2)} = \mathbb{Z}_{(2)} / 2 \mathbb{Z}_{(2)} = \mathbb{F}_2$.
My argument above should still work for integral domains though because there $A\hookrightarrow A_{\mathfrak{p}}$ is injective and $\mathfrak pA_{\mathfrak p}$ is a nonzero proper maximal ideal, hence $A_{\mathfrak p}$ can't be a field
Yeah, it does look like the field of two elements, judging from the equivalence classes... why does inverting 3 (formerly an idempotent) not add a new unit?!
(1,1), (3,3), (5,5) are all obviously equivalent. Then (1,3)(3,3)=(3,3) (1,5)(3,3)=(3,3) (3,5)(3,3)=(3,3) (5,1)(3,3)=(3,3) etc
thinking of them as fractions
counterintuitive, especially for me
ahh, pff
better not to think of the things in the complement as inverted, at least not when this isn't a domain
With a quotient ring, you just "coalesce". With a local ring, you somehow have to expand (by looking at R\times S) and then coalesce with the equivalence relation
@Semiclassical I don't appreciate your comment. The idea I'm working on is in its infancy and it's not going to be perfect on the first try. It is very important to who I am, and when you imply that I'm fumbling in the dark looking for solutions when there are none to find it's insulting and makes me feel of lesser worth
@geocalc33 It's important to separate your feelings of work from whatever work you do - partly so that there are no hard feelings from things like this, partly because research is hard and miserable.
I have spent a lot of time feeling worthless because I was stuck or couldn't solve something I expected to be able to.
@loch Ahh yes of course, the ideals $(p)$ where $p$ are prime are maximal in $\mathbb{Z}$, but $(p_1) \not\subseteq (p_2)$ and $(p_2) \not\subseteq (p_1)$ for any primes $p_1, p_2$ since $p_1 \not\in (p_2)$ and vice versa
So there's no one real maximal ideal in $\mathbb{Z}$
@MikeMiller On the upside some of the best feelings are to be had when you solve something you didn't expect to be able to
@Vrouvrou So in a topological space $X$, if you have two connected sets $C_1$ and $C_2$, if $C_1 \cap C_2 \neq \emptyset$ then their union is connected
Again hanging on some triviality (sry): I have an equivalence relation on a monoid. How to see that $a_1 \sim a_2$ and $b_1\sim b_2$ implies $ a_1 b_1 \sim a_2 b_2$. Intuitively its somehow clear...