« first day (2893 days earlier)      last day (2424 days later) » 

00:03
Would a question about tensor networks be appropriate for math S.E.
 
2 hours later…
01:47
@Secret I got it, keep on studying, I forget about group action 😊 . Sorry for the rubbish Question.
02:20
Are generating functions best viewed as real or complex functions? Why?
02:57
Yes.
03:27
0
Q: Proving that for a $g(x,y)$ such that $\partial_x g$ exists on a set that there is a $g$ such that $\partial_y g$ exists on the same set.

The Great DuckWe define a step function in this context to be a function $C(x)$ such that there exists a uniformly discrete set $S$ such that for any bounded interval $[a,b]$ if $[a,b] \cap S = \emptyset$ then $C(a) = C(b)$. Now let $g(x,y)$ be a function such that there exists a step function $C(x)$ such tha...

 
2 hours later…
05:29
Problem: You start with 1, and each time subtract a random real number from 0 to 1 inclusive, all equally likely, until the number you end up with is less than 1. What is the average amount of times you will subtract?
 
3 hours later…
08:01
Hi @LeakyNun
 
1 hour later…
09:10
@MeowMix 1?
09:39
What do you meant by homomorphism of graded algebra?
I understood that it is an algebra Homomorphism preserves the multiplicative structure.
What do you mean by degree here?
I don't understand the term degree here.
The elements of $A^k$ are called homogenous of degree $k$
There was a feature that takes me to my last message. How was it?
preserving the degree means that if the homomorphism is $\bigoplus_kA^k\to\bigoplus_j B^j$ it should send $A^n$ to $B^n$ for all $n$
@AbdullahUYU Scroll to the top of the chat, it's up there together with a button to open the full transcript
Ah, thanks @AlessandroCodenotti
I finished chapter 1 of atiyah without skipping any questions :D
2
09:59
8
Q: Understanding of graded algebra

JackI am recently learning from Loring W. Tu's An Introduction to Manifolds the concept graded algebra, which is used for introducing exterior algebra. I don't understand the following definition: An algebra $A$ over a field $K$ is said to be graded if it can be written as a direct sum $A=\bigopl...

but Yuan's answer said that $A^k$ , k is just a superscript.
did anyone say it isn't?
Sure, I usually write $A_k$ to avoid confusion, but I was following the notation from the image you posted
@AlessandroCodenotti degree means what? can you explain?
In general "degree $k$" means "belongs to $A_k$". If you think about polynomial rings as graded algebras for example the degree will agree with the usual notion of degree
10:05
okay. Thank you @AlessandroCodenotti
Another example: A superalgebra is said to be $\Bbb Z/2\Bbb Z$-graded, and has degree $0$ and degree $1$ elements, i.e. even and odd elements.
ring isn't abelian
but their modules is abelian
but their algebras isn't abelian
what a strange world
@AlessandroCodenotti what do we know about rings whose algebra is abelian?
@LeakyNun Personally nothing :P
@LeakyNun You mean seeing commutative unitial $R$ as an $R$-algebra?
@Alex u wanna read Goresky
10:09
@Alex if a (commutative unital) ring $R$ satisfies the property that R-Alg is an abelian category, what do we know about R?
@LeakyNun let me think
@LeakyNun I should clarify, how are you defining algebras? Always associative unital, or?
@BalarkaSen Soon for sure
commutative associative unital
@BalarkaSen Was reading some Aguilar
in the sense of Atiyah-Macdonald
ah okok
10:11
@LeakyNun Sure
aguilar is good
Do I need more algebra for study geometrical stuff?
@BalarkaSen I've read about 35 pages so far I think. It's really cool
nice
i havent went through it thoroughly, i just got exposed to bits of it when daminark was reading it
i liked it.
you havent gone through it thoroughly
10:13
Is this true? I haven't thought much about it yet:

>Let $f:X\longrightarrow Y$ be continuous. $f$ is nullhomotopic if and only if $f(X)$ is contractible.
I think it is true
garbage
what?
Rip
yes. think hard, there are easy counterexamples
10:14
oh right
f(X) contractible doesn't give you a series of maps
How do you visualise a nullhomotopic map?
@BalarkaSen There are counterexamples with maps $[0,1]\to S^1$ right?
You warp f(X) continuously onto a point
youtube.com/watch?v=OwcgIHTcuFw <=====Young mathematician of indian origin :)
aha
map S1 -> S2 to the equator
10:15
Hello
the forward direction fails too
I just wanted to visualise a nullhomotopic map in general
@AlessandroCodenotti Yes, surjective map S^1 --> S^1 can be nullhomotopic
You definitely do not warp f(X) continuously to a point. You need to picture the map with its domain and continuously modify the map
10:16
in fact the inclusion S^1 -> R^2 is nullhomotopic
f(X) is a subspace of Y. The warping happens to f, not it's image.
It is indeed
There are surjective maps from [0,1] to any compact locally connected Hausdorff space
but S^1 is surely not contractible
It's not
You can map S^1\to R^2-\{0\}
10:18
Evening @Mike
we don't need -{0}
we shouldn't have -{0}
if you have -{0} then it fails to be a counter-example
because both the condition and the result fail
Depends on the map.
@BalarkaSen For pointed maps I guess that is false?
Only the constant pointed maps = degree 0 winding - are nullhomotopic
10:21
You can be surjective and degree 0
Consider $S^1 \to [0, 1]$ by collapsing the upper and lower hemisphere togather. Then map $[0, 1] \to S^1$ by the quotient map.
Isn't it the case that $f:\Bbb S^1\to \Bbb S^1$ is degree $0$ if it is represented by $\hat{\varphi}(e^{2\pi it})= e^0$ so that $f(e^{2\pi it}) = f(1)e^0$
Namely, if you think of the circle as a rubber band, you're folding the rubber band, and then snaking it around the circle.
@Alex No, degree zero is a homotopical property, I don't know where you are getting these false statements from.
It's degree zero if it's homotopic to something that can be represented as that, whatever formula you wrote.
See my example.
ker(f oplus g) = (ker f) oplus (ker g)?
10:31
Thanks @BalarkaSen
That makes sense
@Alex Without prodding do a degree that makes you uncomfortable, I am curious what your previous thought process was
What's the intuition behind the excision theorem?
Relative homology is supposed to ignore the behavior of chains in A. So if we get rid of some of A, why should that change anything?
@AlessandroCodenotti things behave nice locally
That's a trash description.
10:35
alright
@MikeMiller In aguilar he shows that all the pointed maps $\Bbb S^1\to \Bbb S^1$ are homotopic to some representative $g_i$ for $i\in \Bbb Z$, and then he does all computations w.r.t those - I just forgot that it was up to homotopy temporarily :P
@AlessandroCodenotti Are you reading the theorem statement, or are you reading the proof?
@Alex Ah, I see. That makes sense
While it is nice to have canonical representatives of homotopy classes, this is extremely lucky to this special case. I would endorse spending time trying to think about tbe kind of homotopic maps you can cook up on S^1 as preparation for the more wild things ahead!
@MikeMiller Ok, that does make sense
I think that is supposed to be the idea. The proof if I recall is a bit more involved than the clean idea
10:38
The usual theorem statement is a bit ucky. The proof boils down to the following sequence of ideas. Suppose $X$ is a topological space with a cover $\mathcal{U}$. Denote by $S_\bullet^\mathcal{U}(X) \subset S_\bullet(X)$ to be the subcomplex of $\bullet$-simplices that fit inside an open set of the cover $\mathcal{U}$.
@BalarkaSen The statement, but I already read the barycentric subdivision business which seems to be the main ingredient of the proof
Then the chain-level excision theorem is that the inclusion $S_\bullet^\mathcal{U}(X) \to S_\bullet(X)$ is a chain-homotopy equivalence.
Or more specifically, the homology of those complexes are isomorphic.
I find that much more intuitive
@BalarkaSen Right, I read the proof of that fact (which I also find rather intuitive, I'm just cutting the chains into smaller pieces, what could go wrong?)
Right, the barycentric subdivision is to obtain a chain-homotopy inverse $S_\bullet(X) \to S_\bullet^\mathcal{U}(X)$, which is given by taking a singular simplex in $X$ and then subdividing it (with Lebesgue number lemma) so that it fits inside the cover $\mathcal{U}$.
If $\mathcal{U} = \{U, V\}$ is your cover, then some manipulation recovers that the statement that those two complexes have isomorphic homology is the same as $H_n(X, U) \cong H_n(V, U \cap V)$ if I remember right.
The former is the homology of $S_\bullet(X)/S_\bullet(U)$, the latter is the homology of $S_\bullet^\mathcal{U}(X)/S_\bullet(U)$.
And that's the statement of excision, pretty much.
@Alessandro Here's in my opinion a better reformulation of the cycle of ideas surrounding excision.
Skimming the proof in tom Dieck's book it seems like a lot of diagram chasing (the Five lemma? What's that) and a couple of applications of the isomorphism induced by $S_\bullet^{\mathcal{U}}(X)\hookrightarrow S_\bullet(X)$, I'll read the details later
10:53
fam dieck works too hard
@BalarkaSen I'm leaving for lunch in two minutes, but I'm interested in hearing this
I'll write it down so you can come back and read it
Ok, I'll be back soon! Thanks
Bon apetite
or however the spelling goes
*bone apple tea
11:22
I'm back
I ended up procrastinating instead of writing lmao
lol that's very understandable
@BalarkaSen That's been me the last 3 days
Suppose $\mathcal{U} = \{U, V\}$ is a cover of $X$. Then there is a chain map $S_\bullet(U) \oplus S_\bullet(V) \to S^\mathcal{U}_\bullet(X)$ which sends $(\zeta, \xi) \mapsto \zeta + \xi$ where $\zeta$ and $\xi$ are singular chains living entirely in $U$ or $V$ respectively
@BalarkaSen That's actually an isomorphism, right?
11:26
Mmm no, there is kernel!
What if $\zeta + \xi = 0$?
The kernel of this chain map is $S_\bullet(U \cap V)$, included in $S_\bullet(U) \oplus S_\bullet(V)$ as the antidiagonal copy $(\zeta, -\zeta)$ for $\zeta \in S_\bullet(U \cap V)$.
So we have $S_n^{\mathcal{U}}(X)=S_n(U)+S_n(V)$ (sum as in sum of $\Bbb Z$-modules), but the sum is not direct
Right!
So there is a short exact sequence of chain complexes $0 \to S_\bullet(U \cap V) \to S_\bullet(U) \oplus S_\bullet(V) \to S_\bullet^\mathcal{U}(X) \to 0$ where the first map is $\zeta \mapsto (\zeta, -\zeta)$ and the second map is $(\zeta, \xi) \mapsto \zeta + \xi$.
This gives... a long exact sequence in homology
0
Q: About $ f(x) + c \space f(g(x)) = h(x) $

mickLet $g(x),h(x), f’(x) $ be functions that can be expressed by radicals , log and exp , but $f(x) $ can not. Now consider functional equations like $$ f(x) + c \space f(g(x)) = h(x) $$ Where $c^2 = 1$ The only solutions with h(x) not identically 0 I know are based on $g(x) = a + b x $ with sol...

11:29
Remember that $H_*(S_\bullet^\mathcal{U}(X)) \cong H_*(X)$ by excision.
So we have a long exact sequence $\cdots \to H_{n+1}(X) \to H_n(U \cap V) \to H_n(U) \oplus H_n(V) \to H_n(X) \to \cdots$
This is known as the Mayer-Vietoris sequence, and is the most concise and axiomatic form of the excision theorem
It's an analog of Siefert-van Kampen theorem for homology groups, if you wish.
Hey @BalarkaSen here's a question
@BalarkaSen Aha, so this is the famous Mayer-Vietoris sequence everyone talks about!
I'm sure you know the picture of the dense (irrational slope) curve on a 2-torus.
Right.
11:33
Can we similarly have one-parameter subgroups of $T^n$ whose closure is all of $T^n$ for any $n$?
Answer is, I think, yes, because of some assertions I'm seeing in some paper
but it is not clear to me
For sure. $T^n$ can be realized as $\Bbb R^n/\Bbb Z^n$. Pick a line on $\Bbb R^n$ which has irrational slope projected to each coordinate 2-plane. I think that works.
Yeah, that works?
cool shit
so in fact it's generic
11:35
(which also agrees with what I think must be true)
excellent
thanks
Do you want to hear an odd question which somebody asked me recently, relevant to this picture?
That establishes the correspondence between two definitions of flag manifolds :)
Oh, what are those definitions?
(i) Quotients $G/H$ where $G$ is compact, semisimple and cnonected, and $H=C(T)$ the centralizer of a torus
(ii) Orbits of the adjoint action $G\curvearrowright \mathfrak g$
Given a point $w\in \mathfrak g$, the closure of $\exp(\Bbb R w)$ is the torus
I see that Hatcher spends a few words on examples and "why is excision useful" instead of just giving the statement, I'll read that as well! I have to leave for a while now though, bye everyone and thanks Balarka!
11:40
Hm, you know what, I might be wrong about the construction I gave. I think you need the direction vector of the line in $\Bbb R^n$ to have coordinates $\Bbb Q$-linearly independent.
Otherwise your closure will collapse into a subtorus of $T^n$
yeah
sure
still generic
Yep.
@Danu Ah I see.
so that's saying that the generic orbit yields a "full flag manifold" $G/T$ where $T=C(T)$ is a maximal torus
all this stuff is really well-understood in terms of Lie-algebraic data; it corresponds to these Weyl chambers; interior means full flag manifold, inside a wall means not full
Ah gotcha
but I don't understand that POV haha
I gotta fucking learn representation theory
but it's just so tedious to me
11:43
I know absolutely nothing about that stuff
@AlessandroCodenotti Yup it's a good idea to read Hatcher more on that note
There's so much cool stuff you can do with it
all these homogeneous space things
their characteristic classes and stuff are all computable in terms of Lie-algebraic data
Very interesting
Hirzebruch & Borel, Characteristic classes and Homogeneous Spaces; famous series of papers
Also all these flag manifolds are apparently importatn to a lot of different groups of people, many of which study them because you can use them to study representation theory
@Danu Do you know if every homogeneous space G/H is diffeomorphic to the interior of a compact manifold
@Danu The beautiful geometric realisation of the classification of fin dim irreps of a reductive algebraic group
12:00
@BalarkaSen I'm reading everything from Hatcher as well to get a second perspective
Relief!
You won't turn into a fucken algebraist after all
:( where have all the algebraists gone
lol
But no, I don't think I will become an algebraist :P
jesus
the answer is of course (2)
"I am essentially looking for a formulation of knot theory that looks like it came from nLab." O_O
the category theory of that question is bullshit as well
12:19
@MikeMiller So you're asking if non-compact ones are interiors of compact with boundary? I don't know.
Just pass to $\Pi_1 C^\infty\text{Emb}(S^1, S^3)$ like Will wrote. These nlab people are so annoying.
@Alex I'd like to learn that
@Danu I think Luries argument is pretty cool math.harvard.edu/~lurie/papers/bwb.pdf
(Theorem 2)
@Danu Yeah. It seems plausible to me, as the Lie groups themselves have this property.
Hi guys quick question: im reading a physics paper and the author arrives after some calculation at this: $$ \sum _{l=0}^{\infty } \frac{(2 l+1) \Im\left(f_l\right)}{k}=\sum _{l=0}^{\infty } (2 l+1)
|f_l|^2 $$
and then concludes that $$ \Im(f_l)/k=|f_l|^2 $$
but im not sure that this follows just because the serieses are the same
12:26
@Alex "Blackwater Park" is actually a pretty good album
but maybe because both series contain tis (2l+1) summand we can conclude it? or does the fact that both sides contain the $ f_l $ make sure that all the summands have to be the same?
@BalarkaSen I'll smash it now, and do some goresky
I'm like 1/3 through it
The album, or through lectures 1&2?
Album. I pretty much haven't looked at the lectures
I'm a procrastinating bum
12:33
Naughty rascal
!
did you suddenly turn into an Englishman from the nineteenth century
thats not how Australian insults go as far as I know
Depends on how many layers of irony one has ascended
also tru
Lol, goresky sends me back to learn AT some more :P
Where are you rn
12:37
@LeakyNun this almost always doesn't happen right]
I haven't checked some statements, but at 1.7.d)
Ah
Well i don't know why the image presheaf is not always a sheaf
but im sure its just a matter of coming up with an example
Oh
consider the sheaf of 1-forms over the circle
d should be a sheaf morphism from the sheaf of smooth functions to the sheaf of 1-forms
Yeah I think thats the normal guy
the image is the presheaf of exact forms on the circle... but that's not a sheaf, right?
exact forms don't glue to exact forms
glue them over the circle
12:52
Hi
We define the hodge operator $\ast: \Lambda^p \to \Lambda^{n-p}$ by $a \wedge \ast b = \langle a,b \rangle vol$. How do we know this is well defined, i.e. why does such $\ast b$ exist and is unique?
13:03
If two such $n-p$ forms $c_1,c_2$ satisfied $a\wedge c=\langle a,b\rangle vol$, then $a\wedge (c_1-c_2)=0$
And since this would need to be true regardless of $a$...
I see thanks
How about the existence?
@BalarkaSen i think in general whenever you have a surjective morphism of sheaves $F\rightarrow G$ (i.e. image = $G$) which is not surjective on every open, then the image presheaf is not going to be a sheaf (if it was then sheafifying it does nothing, but it's not G now, which contradicts image = $G$)
@loch I don't understand the sheafification argument.
What is not $G$ now?
i guess i was being sloppy both notatino and argument
Are you sheafifying the Hom presheaf, $U \mapsto \text{Hom}(F(U), G(U))$?
13:17
I'm saying - let $f:F\rightarrow G$ be a morphism of sheaves. We define $im(f)$ to be the sheafification of the image presheaf $im(f)^{pre}$, and say $f$ is surjective if $im(f) = G$.

If the image presheaf $im(f)^{pre}$ is a sheaf, then sheafifying it doesn't do anything. The image presheaf is a sub-presheaf of $G$, and if $f$ is not surjective on every open it is not going to be equal to $G$.
Ah.
Gotchu
My example is a special case of this, of course, because $d : \Omega^0 \to \Omega^1$ is a surjective morphism of sheaves - it's surjective germ-level because every closed form is locally exact. Germinally closed forms are exact.
But it's clearly not surjective on every open set (eg the full $S^1$)
yep
I imagine that instead of cooking something up via general principles, we should be able to think vaguely about how being a sheaf should fail and cook up an example by hand that does it
I do like the d
Example though
His general principle generalized my concrete example so it passes the "algebra? bullshit or not" test
yeah i dont think the remark i made was important - i was just happening to think about it
13:22
@loch so when does it happen?
@MikeMiller r/nocontext
@LeakyNun you want your category to have kernels etc., but so in particular you want your ideals to be R-algebras, which by your definition also contains $1$..
Algebras should not be unital
fight with me
13:23
But even then cokernel fails in general
1
A: Test for equality of quadratic extensions

Kenny LauThe notation $\operatorname{Gal}(F(\sqrt a)/F)$ assumes that $F(\sqrt a)/F$ is separable, but $X^2 - a$ has derivative $0$ in characteristic $2$. For a counter-example, set $F = \Bbb F_2(t)$, then $F(\sqrt t) = F(\sqrt{t+1})$ but $\sqrt{t(t+1)} \notin F$

How to show that $\sqrt{t(t+1)} \notin \Bbb F_2(t)$?
i havent read the post carefully, but arent they assuming char $\ne$ 2
you haven't read the post carefully
aha
i didnt read the first line!
but neither did I, because I missed "please check for correctness"
13:28
@LeakyNun anyway i think you cna just check by hand? i.e. take any element in $\mathbb{F}_2(t)$, and square it, and say it's not $t^2+t$
eh... there's infinitely many elements
@Balarka ;)
If A is a finite C-algebra presenting an affine complex variety, what is the algebra corresponding to blowup at a point?
Yesterdays mistakes :P
the blow up isn't affine in general though
actually
@loch oh rip
That surprises me I guess
13:33
It's the P R O J C O N S T R U C T I O N
^
haha
i guess it's not too surprising, if you blow up $\mathbb{A}^2$ you get a copy of $\mathbb{P}^1$ sitting inside the blow up as the exceptional divisor

which can't happen if your thing is affine
It's taking connected sum with something projective my dude
it's not an algebraic construction
of course algebra fails
it's an algebraic construction! well maybe there are notions of blow ups away from alg geom
It's a geometric construction, the algebraists had to save grace so they discovered the obscene proj
Somehow the picture to me seemed like I should be able to make it affine one dimension up but I am v clueless
13:37
The extra dimension is projective
Anyway who even cares about geometry
2
I don't think you can embed P^1 into any affine space
Blowup of A^2 at a point sits in A^2 x P^1
@BalarkaSen forgetting the algebra means that you can't blow up a fat point!
If you can't make it an infinity functor I'm outta here
@BalarkaSen aha of course
13:43
@loch Those need fitness training, not blowing up
anyway if you're blowing up an ideal $I$ in an affine thing (say $\operatorname{Spec}(A)$) then the blow up is $Proj(\bigoplus_i I^i)$ , i.e. taking proj of the Rees algebra

which looks kind of scary, but if $I=(f_0,\ldots,f_n)$, then you have a surjection of graded rings $A[x_0,\ldots,x_n] \rightarrow \bigoplus_i I^i$ mapping $x_i \mapsto f_i$ in degree $1$

which gives you a closed embedding of the blow up to $\mathbb{P}^n \times A$, in particular the blow up is cut out by the equations defining the kernel of the surjection of graded rings
[eyes bulge, bowtie swivels 720 degrees]
3
@BalarkaSen lmao
i think some of my recent SE answers are on blow ups
I don't know how to fit this with the geometry yet, but one day
13:50
@loch eh... were you typing something about my question?
i think what i said is just a helpful way of computing examples
i was then i forgot
but you deleted your message
oh i made a mistake
@loch do you by any chance league?
what about this :$\frac{f^2}{g^2} = t^2+t$. If $t^i$ be the max $i$ such that $t^i$ divides $g$. Then we have that $t^{2i+1}$ is the max $i$ dividing $f^2$, but that can't be true?
long time ago - nowadays i only follow the competitive scene
13:54
my university is so inefficient
I still don't have my results
they should be coming out soon
very inefficient
if i remember correctly in my third year it came out on something like july 11
very inefficient
@Alex u don't like 1.7.(d)?
thats stuff is jam my dude
14:01
I didn't say I didn't like it, it's just that I've been meaning to properly read Hatcher 1.3, so I went to do that before reading on
Typically I'd just pick up what's needed and then move on, but since I have some spare time, I might as well try to cross this off my list
It's not too terrifying, if you have a representation $\rho : \pi_1(X, x_0) \to \text{GL}_n(\Bbb C)$, you can make a complex vector bundle rank $n$ over $X$ by taking a good cover $\{U_\alpha\}_{\alpha \in I}$ of $X$, taking patches $\coprod_{\alpha \in I} U_\alpha \times \Bbb C^n$ and gluing according to the "monodromy information of $\rho$"
i.e., if $\gamma$ is a loop at $x_0$ and $U_1, \cdots, U_n$ is a cover of $\gamma$ by the elements of the cover, patch $U_i \times \Bbb C^n$'s togather so that the composition of the (linear) transition functions $\varphi_i : U_i \cap U_{i+1} \to \text{GL}_n(\Bbb C)$ is $\rho([\gamma]) \in \text{GL}_n(\Bbb C)$
Sure
Seems reasonable
14:29
In 1.7.e I guess he just gives up on the twiddlification :P
I am not even going to read that example :P
It just ends with [to be completed]
Yeah saw
who even cares about Spec R
You can just whip open your desk copy of Hartshorne to II.5
Or even your pocket copy if you're wearing it
Instead I am whipping open Hatcher to revisit on homology with local coefficients
14:31
What a chad
:GWChadThonk:
@BalarkaSen What's the easiest interesting choice of $X$, $x_0$ and $n$ here?
(that you have in mind)
(to see this monodromy information)
Ask me about monodromy
@Alex Here's an interesting example
Like, the monodromy matrix in Floquet theory? :P
14:43
No
(And Semiclassical you might like this example)
huh. check out the first reference on the wiki page for the monodromy matrix (in the floquet sense): en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Monodromy_matrix
That title escalates quickly.
Say $X$ is a Riemann surface and $A$ is an $n \times n$ matrix of holomorphic $1$-forms on $X$. Consider the differential equation $dF= A\cdot F$ where $F$ is an $n$-vector of holomorphic functions on $X$.
This in general won't have a global solution: $F$ will be multivalued over $X$
So pass to what happens locally. Say $(z_1, \cdots, z_n)$ are local coordinates in a holomorphic chart on $X$. Then our differential equation looks like a system $\partial F_i/\partial z_j = A_{1j}F_1 + A_{2j}F_2 + \cdots + A_{nj} F_n$ of holomorphic ODEs in that chart.
This has a unique solution on that local chart (Think of it as holomorphic Picard-Lefschetz, but it's much easier to prove).
I think I know the name of what this is getting at
14:49
I don't really get the humor @SemiC
It wasn't really intended humorously.
The problem, of course, is that if you have a loop $\gamma$ in $X$ based at some point, say, $z_0 \in X$, and try to analytically continue $F$ around that loop (using that it is well-defined locally), we might end up at two different $F$'s at a local holomorphic chart around $z$.
And this precisely happens when $\gamma$ is not null-homotopic.
Except perhaps in the dark sense of "I guess that's one interpretation of 'optimal control'"
So what you have is a solution defined over the universal cover $\widetilde{X} \to X$ of the Riemann surface, i.e., the analytically continued $F$ is an element of $\mathscr{O}(\tilde{X})^n$.
I can't see that phrase anywhere there
I'm really confused by what you mean
But it doesn't matter much
14:52
"Optimal Control of Nonlinear Processes: With Applications in Drugs, Corruption, and Terror"
3
that's the first reference in the monodromy matrix wiki page
Ah I am sorry, I was looking at See Also and the related pages instead!
"This page on Floquet theory seems completely tame..."
ikr
It makes the subject go from seeming technical and innocuous to rather sinister
$\pi_1(X)$ acts on $\tilde{X}$ by deck transformations, therefore acts on the values of $F$ on $\tilde{X}$ as well. Precisely, if $\gamma$ is a non-nullhomotopic loop in $X$ based at $z_0$, $\gamma$ acts on $\Bbb C^n$ by linear transformation that takes the $n$-tuple of values of $F = (F_1, \cdots, F_n)$ defined at $z_0$ to the other solution $G = (G_1, \cdots, G_n)$ that one gets after monodrom-ing around.
That gives a representation $\pi_1(X) \to \text{GL}_n(\Bbb C)$
This is the "monodromy of the system"
14:56
nice
what I was thinking about was Jacobi's inversion theorem
The question now is "which representation (read: flat complex bundles) of a surface group appear as monodromy representations of systems of holomorphic differential equations?"
The Riemann-Hilbert correspondence says all of them
The category of complex linear representations of a surface group is the same as the category of local systems on the surface.
@BalarkaSen Why are there n coordinates on a complex 1-manifold?
@Alex I have a system of n (first order) differential equations.

« first day (2893 days earlier)      last day (2424 days later) »