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22:05
@LeakyNun the fraction field = field of all regular functions defined on some open set of your scheme- is that what youre thinking of?
22:26
@loch yes
@MatheinBoulomenos I am impressed that Miranda seems to dodge all analysis and actually prove everything
I will have to look at some point to see how Serre duality works
Maybe he manages to take the sheafy proof and write it down very cleanly or something because they're curves
@MikeMiller I really want to read Miranda as my first serious encounter with Riemann surfaces, hopefully soon
we did mention some basic stuff in modular forms and single complex variable 1&2, but not much
Hey @Ted
Heya Mathein
Where I am right now the library has all of the GSMs, GTMs, EMSs, etc in order
So I am looking through them to see what's good reading
@MikeMiller pretty cool
22:39
GSM 37: Farkas-Kra - Theta Constants, Riemann Surfaces, and Number Theory seems pretty cool
the title seems cool
The hyperbolic version of Elliptic function thelry
With applications at the end to partition functions
In the preface, Miranda mentions an "adelic proof" of Riemann Roch which sounds really cool
I know adeles from NT
apparently he broke down the adelic proof
I like adeles
Long ago at least
it makes sense that you have adeles for compact riemann surfaces because of the function field analogy etc. and it also works for function fields over finite fields, but you don't really use that your coefficient field is finite
22:46
I see!
I think I came up with the construction how you can reconstruct a Riemann surface from its function field, but I can't really prove it gives you a complex manifold
What is the adele ring of a compact riemann surface? I only know the one from nt
and it's inspired by an exercise from an ANT class actually
@loch I imagine restricted product over completions of all valuations which are trivial on $\Bbb C$
@MikeMiller do you want to hear how I think going from the function field to the RS works?
I mean meromorphic functions by function field, I'm not going over algebraic curves as an intermediate step or something like that
Hmm not really familiar valuations on function fields of a riemann surface - if im not being dumb though i think there are uncountably many of them ? (As opposed to countably many in the case of number fields / function fields over finite fields) - i suppose the definition still makes sense
@loch the valuations correspond to points on the RS! you can prove that every valuation that is trivial on constant functions is given by measuring poles or zeroes at a point
22:53
Oh yes of course
:p
and it actually follows from the theory of extensions of valuations you would do in NT and the function field analog of Ostrowski which works for rational functions over any base field
@MatheinBoulomenos What time is it for you? I would listen maybe later or tomorrow
@MikeMiller 1:00 am
for Mathein that's usually mid-afternoon :P
but I'm not really sleepy
22:55
Well, lecture starts in about an hour. I was going to have breakfast but nothing looks appetizing
So I suppose I have time
breakfast at 4 PM?
or are you at a conference somewhere?
I am at a summer school in Japan
oh wow !! good for you!
It is 8am
@MikeMiller really cool!
22:57
better eat something ... seriously
We are out in the country on a nature preserve
The building is entirely made of wood
But the people are very good and it is a rejuvenating experience
I am a bit (what word to use...?) Disenchanted lately and it is nice to just talk about math with people and share pictures and ideas
Hey everyone!
Hi @Daminark
Hi Demonark
@MikeMiller okay, so the starting point for me was this exercise we did in NT that goes as follows: Let $k$ be any field, then any discrete valuation on $k(t)$ is either given by the $f$-adic valuation where $f$ is an irreducible polynomial (works like the p-adic dude) or by the "valuation at infinity" which sends $f/g$ to $\operatorname{deg}(g) - \operatorname{deg}(f)$ (this corresponds to measuring the vanishing/pole order at infinity for $k=\Bbb C$ and $K$ meromorphic functions on the sphere)
23:00
Understood 1000%, Mike.
oh I forgot a condition
it's trivial when restricted to $k$
that's the function field analog of Ostrowski's theorem
Allow me to head to my laptop to read, I will be back in 2 or 3 minutes - you can keep writing
but for $k=\Bbb C$ any irreducible polynomial is of course just $z-\lambda$, so we get a bijection between points on a sphere and discrete valuations on its function field
So let's do this construction first for the Riemann sphere and then talk about general compact Riemann surfaces later
I'm with you
Suppose we're given the function field $\Bbb C(t)$ (just as an abstract field, we don't know the generator $t$, but we know how $\Bbb C$ sits inside that
then we can define the Riemann sphere as a set as equivalence classes of discrete valuations (or you can just take normalized ones) that are trivial on $\Bbb C$
23:05
Not sure how to parse. You have a field $K/\Bbb C$ which you know is 1-generated but you have not chosen the generator?
yes
just there exists one
but we don't need it for the construction
@MatheinBoulomenos I guess what I really mean here is 'why?'
@MikeMiller because discrete valuations "see" the points in the algebraic structure of the field
by the Ostrowski result, every discrete valuation measures zeroes or poles at a unique point
No, I'm fine with that, but why is this the Riemann sphere?
You've identified the function field to start somehow?
I'm starting with the function field
23:07
Oh, I'm sorry
I see now what you were saying above
and I want to build a Riemann surface out of that
$\text{val}(k) = \Bbb P^1(k)$
well, valuations on $k(t)$ that are trivial on $k$, but yeah
I was just being lazy in notation, I got you
okay
So the idea is if we have this set of "points", we can make sense of elements in our abstract field as actual functions on that
23:08
Okay, so this is how we define $\Bbb P^1$
Is the point that function fields for other Riemann surfaces are going to be pretty much arbitrarily complex?
their valuations are going to be as simple as for the Riemann sphere :)
but I want to reduce that to the sphere
so before I get into extension of valuations theory, I want to do the construction for the sphere
Wait, is every Riemann surface rational?
Surely not
It's a finite ramified covering of the sphere, which means that the function field is a finite extension of $\Bbb{C}(x)$
that's enough
23:11
Ah I see, ok, that's what I wanted
It's virtually rational ;)
valuations behave in controllable ways under finite (separable) extensions
But I wanted to talk about how to evaluate our elements of the abstract field at points first
So we have an element of $f \in K$ and we want to get an actual function from it on our "set of points", so we want to define from $f$ a function that sends valuations to points in $\Bbb C \cup \infty$
no that's wrong
now it should make sense
So with $f$ fixed, and a valuation $v$, if $v(f) < 0$, $f$ has a pole, so $f$ should send $v$ to $\infty$
23:16
Ok, sure
if $v(f) \geq 0$, then $f$ is an element of the valution ring $\{ g \in K \mid v(g) \geq 0\}$ which is a local ring with maximal ideal $\{ g \in K \mid v(g) > 0\}$
the quotient of that is isomorphic to $\Bbb C$ (and in a canonical way, as $\Bbb C$ is a subring of everything)
Then the value in that case is just the image under the quotient map $\{ g \in K \mid v(g) \geq 0\}/\{ g \in K \mid v(g) > 0\} = \Bbb C$
Wow!
Wow!!
So now when we can treat the elements of $K$ as actual functions, we can just take the initital topology wrt to the standard topology on $\Bbb C \cup \infty$ to get a topology for our set of valuations
I haven't been able to prove that this gives us the topology we want but I'm quite sure this should work out
If you can prove that at points where the map isn't branched I believe it should be not hard in general
and then for general Riemann surfaces, the idea is that the function field is a finite extension of $\Bbb C(z)$ and you use that you can understand how discrete valuations behave under finite extensions to see that the discrete valuations (if we start with a Riemann surface) correspond to zero-or-pole order again
23:23
I think at the very least you can probably recover the zariaki topology?
@loch yeah, if you take the initital topology wrt Zariski topology on $\Bbb P^1$, then that's what you should get
@loch I think that a circular proof works: If you start with $K = \text{Func}(\Sigma)$ one can check that the topology is the manifold topology
@loch what do I get if I start with an arbitrary ring?
taking the functions and modulo the obvious relation
Yeah - i also dont think you used anything special about complex numbers so far - so i am unsure how you can get the euclidean topology without something like analytification
@LeakyNun well now you cant really make sense of adding two functions defined on different opens - since their intersection might be disjoint :p
He said initial topology w/r/t standard topology on $\Bbb{CP}^1$
23:27
@loch but we can take the analytic topology on $\Bbb C \cup \infty$, the set in which our functions take values when we take the inital topology!
Oh
It is easy to see how to analytify the latter fella
And we transfer along that
I think it's quite clever
@loch oh we need it to be reduced?
Yeah i think that makes sense
yeah and if you have a discrete valuation on a larger field than $\Bbb C(z)$ (but still a finite extension), you restrict it down to $\Bbb C(z)$ that gives you a discrete valuation on that, which we understand and then there's some general theory that tells you how discrete valuations behave under finite extensions (I learned that in ANT, which is probably the place most persons encounter this valuation stuff)
This valuation stuff also describes ramification: the ramification of a point depends on the number of ways you can extend the valuation, relative to the degree of extension
23:29
@LeakyNun you need your scheme to be irreducible
what does that mean downstairs?
Nonreduced is fine.. you just dont get a field
There is a unique minimal prime
@MikeMiller yeah that was just some algebraic musings that I thought up for RS without really knowing the theory, I think the usual thing you do is going from function fields to algebraic curves and then analytification? This way is direct, without needing algebraicity
@MatheinBoulomenos I wonder if it's possible to construct the Teichmuller space (or at least the moduli space of Riemann surfaces) algebraically, starting with the function field
I guess more likely this constructs a moduli space of branched covers, which is like Riemann surface equipped with nonzero meromorphic function
23:33
@loch so if $\mathfrak p$ is the minimal prime, then I just get $A_{\mathfrak p}$?
You can do that with the $j$-invariant for elliptic curves, @MikeM, but I dunno how you get the analytic parameters explicitly into the function field in general.
But I'm probably being silly.
hi @Ted
@TedShifrin No sillier than I.
@Ted have you read my construction? do you think it works?
Also hi @Ted
Nah, Mathein, I'm chatting elsewhere and not following your lecture series :)
23:35
@MikeMiller hmm, I don't know about that
@TedShifrin my idea was to (re)construct a Riemann surface from its function field by looking at discrete valuations as points and then showing how you can view an element in the field as a function on the set of the discrete valuations
and then take the initial topology wrt the analytic topology on $\Bbb P^1$
@LeakyNun yep
oh no wait, it's final topology actually
@loch can you give me a ring with two disjoint nonempty opens?
Whatever, I assumed you chose the right one hehe
no, initial is right, lol
23:37
Product of rings
does $\Bbb Z^2$ work?
Uh sure
Two points is probably simpler- but why not :p
if $D(f) \cap D(g)$ is empty then $fg=1$???
23:39
That sounds wrong.
there's nowhere that both f and g vanish on
Ugh... the internet sucks... I just want to know if I can eat the leaves off of my tree... WHY DOESN'T THE INTERNET KNOW IF IT IS SAFE?
Aside- you can prove your spec is disconnected iff your ring can be written as a product
oh
$fg=0$
so I should pick $D(1,0)$ and $D(0,1)$
@TedShifrin why do you think that it sounds wrong?
23:40
@MatheinBoulomenos because the correct one is fg=0
No, @Leaky, the intersection is not where the product vanishes.
The union is where the product vanishes.
D is not vanish
Canonical construction of reducible.
Oh, ...
23:41
D for Does not vanish :P
@Ted oh, you didn't mean my construction with "that sounds wrong"
serves me right for butting in.
no, @Mathein.
I'm too rusty on this kind of stuff to be of any value.
(pun intended)
there's nowhere that fg does not vanish <=> fg vanishes everywhere <=> fg=0
@MikeMiller this construction doesn't really choose a particular meromorphic function on the surface I think. I need to use the existence of a meromorphic function, i.e. the existence of an embedding of $\Bbb{C}(z)$ into the function field (such that it's a finite extension) to show that given a Riemann surface, valuations actually correspond to points, but once I have that I can forget about the choice of function again and just work with valuations on an abstract field
@Mathei The complex structure is only dependent on the function field?
23:43
add some "non-constant"s in this statements for it to make sense
@MikeMiller hmm, no I fix the embedding of $\Bbb C$, that's true
the category of fields is finitely generated extensions of $\Bbb C$ of transcendence degree $1$
But somehow maybe the choices should be parsmeterizable
Or the difference not too heavy
@Ted Trust me, I get it
ah, I don't really know about this moduli space/ Teichmüller stuff
Me neither, but I suppose that's a bit blase to say if I am asking about it
@LeakyNun * fg is nilpotent
@Ted My brain has rotted enough already I am not looking forward to 40 years from now
Well, there are many reasons I am not looking forward to 2060
23:50
@loch we have projection maps $\pi_i : R_1 \times R_2 \to R_i$
@MikeM ... I don't even remember your name! :D
whose upstairs is $\operatorname{Spec}(R_i) \to \operatorname{Spec}(R_1) \sqcup \operatorname{Spec}(R_2)$
It's hard, with all these pseudonyms
@loch are you saying that if I have a global section in $R_1 \times R_2$, then I actually have two independent functions defined on $R_1$ and $R_2$?
@MatheinBoulomenos can you make morphism of sheaves concrete? What I mean is that if I want to make sheaf concrete, I would consider the sheaf of analytic functions on C
i.e. on each open set we have a ring of functions defined there
also I feel like $\mathcal O_{\Bbb C}(B(x,r))$ are all non-canonically isomorphic
Holomorphic maps between Riemann surfaces induce sheaf homomorphisms
Though one must be careful what sheaves
23:56
so e.g. $z \mapsto z^2 : \Bbb C \to \Bbb C$?
ok not Riemann, but whatever
@LeakyNun basically yes - although i guess it's probably nicer to phrase things more precisely
what do you mean by making a morphism of sheaves concrete?
anyway there is actually a third part of the iff, which will probably help you (if you are trying to show the iff)
in the same sense of making a sheaf concrete
which iff?
spec A is disconnected <=> A = A_1 x A_2 <=> A has a non-0,1 idempotent
lol what does it mean to make a sheaf concrete?
I don't understand the question, in what sense concrete?
just give an example
23:59
oh i lied
@loch I've heard the morally correct proof of 1 => 3
maybe you also have
i meant A has non-zero $e_1,e_2$ such that $e_1e_2 = 0, e_1^2 = e_1, e_2^2=e_2, e_1+e_2=1$

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