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20:01
yeah, gotta be more specific
which of the four humors?
(my bet's on sanguine)
@Daminark the secret is that all humor is bad
20:16
@EricSilva found the German!
20:30
frustration: theorem says conditions (1) - (5) are equivalent
proof (as best I can tell) shows that (1) => (2), (2)=>(3), (5)=>(4), (4)=>(5), and (3) => (1)
Hi, Everybody, I had a quick and subjective question that may interest you based on the following data. "If the incoming freshman class size is about 179 each year, they only graduate approximately 95 each year and they only transfer 5 each year, Is the following attrition(drop out) data approximately fit?" 1st year 18.1%, 2nd year 3.9%, 3rd year 2.5% 4th year 0 % and so on
none of which connect (1),(2),(3) with (4),(5)...
I can't tell if they just don't state one of the implications explicitly or if they actually mislabeled one of the implications.
Surprisingly, I guess college lies without able justify their statement, Anyone want to help out?
(could make a graph theory question out of it: given a disconnected digraph, how many edges must be changed in order to get a connected digraph)
The graduation rate is approximately 90%
The rate of 90% is a typo, ignore that
20:55
Yo0o0o
21:13
Hai @BalarkaSen Now, I am at Kalyani,WB :)
thank God whoever created Geogebra
"Markus Hohenwarter" apparently
what's the degree of x-x? is it 1 or 0?
undefined
-infty
well, that also
21:20
damn alright x^2-x^2+x
is it 2 or 1?
okay
ty
rehi @Ted
rehi ... that asymptote question turned out to be a hellish question
usually it's undefined but sometimes we assign it $-\infty$ but I'm not sure what the advantage is of doing so
oh, e;f,b
21:21
Because then degree of a product is still the sum of the degrees, @GFauxPas.
oh interesting
i guess that's useful
I mean, it's ultimately a hack
You don't then have to say "except when you have the zero polynomial"
@TedShifrin provided that your ring is an integral domain
but hacks are allowed
Yeah, yeah, yeah.
In my algebra book I say the zero poly has no degree.
And I stated the degree of the product (in an integral domain) for nonzero polynomials. I'm happier that way.
21:25
I consider the use of the lemniscate in that kind of situation as a convenient fiction
Say what?
if you say the degree is $-\infty$
what?
of the zero polynomial
What has that to do with lemniscates?
21:26
that's the name of the symbol
rolls 6 7/8 eyes
I didn't mean it in the sense of curves I was just referring to the symbol "$\infty$"
$\frac{dy}{dx} \approx -\frac{m^3-2m^2+3m-2}{2m^3-3m^2+2m-1} = -\frac{(m^2-m+2)(m-1)}{(2m^2-m+1)(m-1)}$ looks like this tends towards $-1/2$, no? Ted?
@loch hi
We're not taking $m\to\infty$, @GFauxPas. We're trying to find when that equals $m$.
oh as $x$ tends to $\infty$
not $m$
right
21:34
Right.
I'm getting $-1$
When I found the directrix of the parabola with the equation -8(y-3)=(x+4)^2, I got y=1, but the correct answer is actually y=5.
What I did was add 1/4a to the y-coordinate of the vertex of the parabola to the parabola, since the parabola is pointing downwards, thus the directrix should be above it.
If anyone can tell me what I did wrong that would be great
Oh, maybe I typed wrong. Let me check, @GFauxPas.
Thanks, @GFauxPas. I had absorbed the minus sign into the numerator, but typed it anyhow.
@DarkRunner: The vertex of the parabola is at $(-4,3)$, so it can't be the line $y=1$. As you said, it has to be above the parabola.
21:52
@DarkRunner: i had to work this out (cuz I never remember it), but the directrix for $y=ax^2$ should be the line $y=-\frac 1{4a}$. So if your $a = -1/8$, it would be a distance $2$ above the vertex. That puts it at $y=5$.
@LeakyNun hello
Hi @loch
@TedShifrin hello
Oh, @DarkRunner, the problem is that you added when you should have subtracted.
0
Q: Why do every strong extremum is simultaneously the weak extremum?

Failed to be a Mathematician My Doubt Here $||f||_{1}=\sup_{x\in[0,1]}|f(x)|+\sup_{x\in[0,1]}|f'(x)|$ where as $||f||_0=\sup_{x\in[0,1]}|f(x)|$. We can easily prove from definition that $$||f||_0=\sup_{x\in[0,1]}|f(x)|\leq \sup_{x\in[0,1]}|f(x)|+\sup_{x\in[0,1]}|f'(x)|=||f||_1$$ Using the above inequality, ...

please help me.
22:06
@FailedtobeaMathematician: If two functions are close in the $1$-norm, they have to be close in the $0$-norm.
one norm is for a weak extremum. right?
Yeah, so you restrict your testing to functions with $\|y-\hat y\|_1<\varepsilon$.
okay. then $\hat{y}$ is weak extremum. right?
If it is strong, then it is weak.
To check it is a weak extremum, you consider all $y$ with $\|y-\hat y\|_1$ small. This implies that $\|y-\hat y\|_0$ is small, and so it meets the definition of a strong extremum. Therefore, any strong extremum must be a weak extremum.
To check it is a weak extremum, you consider all $y$ with $\|y-\hat y\|_1$ small. This implies that $\|y-\hat y\|_0$ is small I am clear till here.
Suppose $\hat y$ is strong extremum then $\exists \epsilon>0$ . $||y-\hat y||_0<\epsilon$. how can we guarentee that there exists a positive number $\delta>0$: $||y-\hat y||_1<\delta$ from this?
22:26
Your logic is not good.
If $\hat y$ is a strong extremum, then for every $y$ with $\|y-\hat y\|_0<\varepsilon$ (fixed), something happens. Then for that same $\varepsilon$, the something will still happen for every $y$ with $\|y-\hat y\|_1<\varepsilon$.
To answer your question directly, you take $\delta=\varepsilon$.
Bob
Bob
maybe somebody here could look at my post: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2814980/…
@Bob: Of course you have to use polar coordinates! But I don't understand. What does $P[P(X,Y)|x^2+y^2\le a^2)]$ mean? Do you have an extra $P[]$?
Or do you want an expectation somewhere?
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin That is the notation the book has.
22:39
What does it mean?
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin the way I interpret the problem is that they are asking you find the distribution function for $X$ and $Y$ for the special case where $x^2 + y^2 < a^2$
It should be the probability that $X^2+Y^2\le a^2$.
What book is this?
Bob
Bob
The problem is from the Schaum book on "Probability, Random Variables, and Random Processes"
Chapter 3
Ah, well, I don't have that.
I have two probability books.
I'm not a probability expert and it's been almost 4 years since I taught it. I really don't know what the notation means.
Bob
Bob
@Ted Shifrin I bought the book because I am interested in Stochastic Processes but I am finding the material very difficult.
22:42
But you should be writing $P[X^2+Y^2\le a^2]$ (not $x$ and $y$ in there). It's the probability that the random variable $X^2+Y^2$ has certain values.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin can you double check that I did the integration correctly
@TedShifrin I wrote it the way the book wrote it
No, the $K$ should disappear. As $a\to\infty$, the probability should go to $1$.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin Are you saying my answer is wrong?
A lot of Schaum's outlines were written 100 years ago and are not necessarily the best reference. You might try looking at a nice book by Jim Putman, who actually is a statistician. He has a lot of good applications in his book.
Yes, check your substitution in the integral. The $K$ should have canceled.
That's why it's there in the first place ... to have a probability distribution.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin what is the problem with $K$ in the answer? $K$ is just a constant.
22:45
The probability is being in the entire plane must be $1$. That's why that $K$ is there in the first place. Probability density functions must always have total integral $1$.
Oh, I mistyped his name. It's Pitman.
Bob
Bob
You realize that: $K = \frac{1}{2\sigma^2}$
You aren't listening to me. The limit of your answer as $a\to\infty$ MUST be $1$.
Check your integration by substitution when you do the $r$ integral.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin Now I see, my answer must be wrong
It's a small error.
But that's always a good way to double-check yourself with probability things.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin do you see where I went wrong?
22:50
Well, you didn't write down the details of how you did the integration by substitution, but that's where the mistake is.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin is it before or after this line: P( x^2 + y^2 < a^2 ) &=&
\int_{-a}^{a} \frac{-1}{\pi}e^{-K(x^2+y^2)}
It's where you evaluated the $dr$ integral.
Line 3 is correct. Line 4 is incorrect.
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin I thank you very much. I am going to sign off now and work on it. Have a nice evening.
You too. Sorry I can't be quite an expert for you.
The calculus I can do fine :P
Bob
Bob
@TedShifrin You were an expert for me. Bye
23:04
Hello
1
Q: How do we get the solution?

EvindaWe have the problem \begin{align*}&u_t+uu_x=0 \\ &u(x,0)=\begin{cases}2, & x<0 \\ 2-x, & x\in[0,1] \\1, & x>1\end{cases}\end{align*} We have the problems $$\frac{dx}{dt}=u \ \text{ and } \ \frac{du}{dt}=0$$ From the first one we get $x=ct+c_2$ and for $t=0$ we get $x_0=c_2$ and so we get $x_0=x-...

Could you tell me why for $t<1$ we have a classical solution, but for $t>1$ a weak one?
@TedShifrin 1)Suppose $\hat y$ is strong extremum then $\exists \epsilon>0$ . $||y-\hat y||_0<\epsilon$. 2)Suppose $\hat y$ is weak extremum then $\exists \delta>0$ . $||y-\hat y||_0<\delta$. $\delta=\epsilon$ I am clear. What happen $\delta>\epsilon$ and $\delta<\epsilon$?
If $\delta=\epsilon$ , $\hat y$ a strong extrema $\implies$ it is weak extrema.
@TedShifrin Thank you. Now it is clear, Sorry, I understood in a different way. My english is weak.
23:34
can you have a group that is an inverse of another group
for a custom definition of inverse or group, yes
but as far as i am aware, there is no concept of inverse of group
so it's possible to define a group and then define that entire groups inverse
that's neat
for example
you could decide that "inverse of" means "isomorphic to" in the case of groups
then you could have groups that are inverses of other groups
but i advise against publishing that
because there is no reason to use a new word for that
and you will be confusing everybody
and then everybody will hate you
23:47
12 mins ago, by geocalc33
can you have a group that is an inverse of another group
define what you mean by a group being inverse of another group
Oh wait actually I think I mean the complement of a group
like you have a group $G$ and then you have 1-$G$
you still need to define what it means
$G$ is group and then you define the complement of $G$ as the set of complements of each element in $G$
let's get more concrete
set $G = \{e,a\}$ with $a^2 = e$
then what is the complement of $G$?
what do you mean by the set of complements of each element?
you're still using non-standard terminologies, so you still have to define it
$G$ complement = {1-e, 1-a}
23:56
how is 1-e defined?
and what is the new group operation?
what do you mean it's just 1-e
Leaky Nun describes all the elements of the group
there's $e$ and $a$, with $aa = e$
there's no "$1$" there
unless you mean $1$ to be $e$
and there's no $-$ there, unless you mean $^{-1}$
@geocalc33 anyway, how do you define the group operation for this new group?
@GFauxPas let's assume that 1-x is just a formal symbol
okay sure
because this person really hates defining things

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