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06:02
@Zee, dou have any idea about this:
48 mins ago, by Silent
@anon, is it true: Let $\{a_n\}$ be real sequence. If $|a_{n+1}-a_n|<\frac1{3^n}$ for all $n$, then $a_n$ convergent.
oh, let me write this without latex
is it true: Let {a_n} be real sequence. If |a_{n+1}-a_n|<1/(3^n) for all n, then a_n convergent. @Zee
@TobiasKildetoft hi! did you take a look at my question from yesterday?
@Liad I don't think so. What was the question?
$Fr$ is the frobenius transform($x\to x \ ^p$) i showed that $<Fr> \le Gal(\overline{F_p} / F_p)$ and that it is infinite. also i showed that $\overline{F_p} \ ^{<Fr>} = F_p$. now i need to show that $Gal(\overline{F_p}/F_p)$ is abelian.
i cant show it. i tried using galois mapping but i cant because the extention is not finite
@Liad Ahh, I had a quick look, but your last message was that you seemed to have solved it.
@TobiasKildetoft yea i thought the extenstion is finite, which is not. if it was then it was easy from the galois mapping
06:13
I think the infinite galois group is defined by some inverse limit over finite extensions - in which case does the claim not just follow from inverse limit of an inverse system of abelian groups is abelian?
So the field is the limit of the fixed points of the iterates of that morphism
im not sure what do you mean by "limit" ?
@Liad In this case it is just the union actually
Zee
Zee
@Silent I would say yes
About An converging
Wait
It seems like you need the bounding thing to be convergent as a sum i.e. since the series 1/(3^n ) is divergent this won’t work
06:29
Morning
@Zee it is not divergent! See this
@TobiasKildetoft does it mean that $Gal(\overline{F_p} /F_p) = <Fr>$ ?
@TobiasKildetoft, $\int _0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\:\frac{\sin x}{x}$ is integrable because $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ has finite limit at $0$ as well as at $\frac{\pi}2$; while $\int _{0^{^{^1}}}\:\frac{x}{\ln x}$ is not integrable because limit of $\frac{x}{\ln x}$ at -1 is $-\infty$, right?
mornin' @SirCumference
@skull How's life
06:42
still alive, pal
you?
Barely but yeah
yeah
its a jungle out there
Out where?
society
@Liad I don't think so. As I recall it being the Prüfer group
06:43
Yeah I guess that's true
@TobiasKildetoft so can you explain to me how we get that it is abelian? it equals the union of what?
@TobiasKildetoft,
$\int _0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\:\frac{\sin x}{x}$ is integrable because $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ has finite limit at $0$ as well as at $\frac{\pi}2$; while $\int _0^1\:\frac{x}{\ln x}$ is not integrable because limit of $\frac{x}{\ln x}$ at $1$ is $-\infty$, right?
@Silent Why are you asking me?
Sorry I put previous one without noting latex mistakes
$y = 8 sec^2 x + 18 cos^2 x$, find minimum possible value of y.
06:47
I assumed that you knew it
@Liad Given any element there is some power of the Frobenius which fixes that element, right?
@TobiasKildetoft hmm it sounds right ^^
07:02
Please someone look at this convexivity question, I am having trouble with it for a long time!
@Liad So if we let $\sigma$ be some automorphism and let its fixed field be the same as that of some power $r$ of the Frobenius. What can we say here?
3
Q: Show $A(x) = \int_{0}^{x}f(t)dt$ is convex if $f(x)$ is increasing (Alternate method)

jeeaThis is same question as posted here: Math.StackExchange.com but I have used a different approach to prove the question and this question is regarding that approach. After I realise that I made a mistake in understanding definition of convex criteria, this is my second attempt: We need to show ...

@TobiasKildetoft $\sigma \ ^ {r} = id$ ?
@Liad Actually, I am not sure if that was the right thing to consider. I am not quite sure how one does this right now
Ah. ok .
thanks anyway ^^
 
2 hours later…
08:54
Let $(G,m,i,e)$ be an algebraic group scheme over a field $k$
@LeakyNun,
2 hours ago, by Silent
@TobiasKildetoft,
$\int _0^{\frac{\pi }{2}}\:\frac{\sin x}{x}$ is integrable because $\frac{\sin x}{x}$ has finite limit at $0$ as well as at $\frac{\pi}2$; while $\int _0^1\:\frac{x}{\ln x}$ is not integrable because limit of $\frac{x}{\ln x}$ at $1$ is $-\infty$, right?
Then, a morphism $\varphi : G \to \Bbb G_m$ is such that $(\varphi \otimes_k \varphi) \circ m = (m_{\Bbb G_m}) \circ \varphi$
@Silent you need to do O-analysis at 1
I think you meant to say $\varphi \circ m = m_{\mathbb{G}_m} \circ (\varphi \times \varphi)$?
indeed
now, in the right category, that becomes a morphism $\varphi: k[X,X^{-1}] \to \mathcal O(G)$ such that $m(\varphi(X)) = \varphi(X) \otimes_k \varphi(X)$
right
so consider $(k[X_1,\cdots,X_n],~~ X_i \mapsto X_i \otimes 1 + 1 \otimes X_i,~~ X_i \mapsto -X_i,~~ X_i \mapsto 0)$
morphisms of the above type are in 1-1 correspondence with the invertible elements $x$ in $\mathcal O(G)$ such that $m(x) = x \otimes_k x$
but the only invertible elements I can see are the non-zero constants
so what am I doing
@loch
09:14
I don't think you did anything wrong
@LeakyNun This just says that there are no non-trivial homomorphisms from the additive group to the multiplicative group
So the characters of $\Bbb A^n$ are just the invertible idempotents of $k$?
(which are also morphisms of schemes of course)
if $k$ is a field then there is 1 character?
09:16
Yes, the trivial character
oh, invertible idempotent must be $1$
in any old commutative ring
If I have two characters $\chi, \chi' : G \to \Bbb G_m$, how do I create $\chi + \chi'$?
By using the multiplication in $\mathbb{G}_m$
So even though we write it as addition, it is really multiplication
how do we construct the two tori over $\Bbb R$ from its extension in $\Bbb C$, i.e. $\Bbb G_{m,\Bbb C}$?
@LeakyNun Not sure what you mean
there are two tori over $\Bbb R$ such that over $\Bbb C$ they become $\operatorname{Spec}(\Bbb C[X,X^{-1}])$
09:20
right
how do I know what the two tori are
Recall the definition of a torus
I think we have two definitions of a torus
$\mathbb{R^2}/\mathbb{Z}^2$
basically I want to find ring $A$ such that $A \otimes_\Bbb R \Bbb C \cong \Bbb C[X,X^{-1}]$
not the other definition
09:23
Ok, and obviously you already know one of those.
right
(the split one)
And you know what the non-split one should look like by definition
I don't really know
I mean, I know the answer, but I can't see how to construct it in the first place
Recall the definition in terms of direct products of multiplicative groups
not recalling much...
09:25
direct product of multiplicative groups of finite extensions of the field
so you basically mean $\Bbb C[X,X^{-1}]$?
that isn't right
$\Bbb C \otimes_{\Bbb R} \Bbb C[X,X^{-1}] \cong \Bbb C[X,X^{-1}] \times \Bbb C[X,X^{-1}]$
really
anyway, let's get back to our question
5 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
basically I want to find ring $A$ such that $A \otimes_\Bbb R \Bbb C \cong \Bbb C[X,X^{-1}]$
09:29
only $\Bbb R[X,X^{-1}]$ will do I think, but that's not the definition of a split torus
there is another
You want to find rings $A$ such that $A\otimes_{\Bbb R} \Bbb C$ is a product of copies of $\Bbb C[X,X^{-1}]$
@MatheinBoulomenos hi! have you seen my question from before? i think you might know how to solve it
one copy
also, tensor product of copies
(of one copy, but still it's tensor product not product)
@Liad the fact that the limit of $\frac{x}{\ln x}$ is $-\infty$ is not the reason why it is not integrable
09:36
Ah ?
didnt ask that question ^^
@MatheinBoulomenos you confused Liad with Silent lol
they have similar icons
ah sorry, your avatars are both green ^^
$Fr$ is the frobenius transform($x\to x \ ^p$) i showed that $<Fr> \le Gal(\overline{F_p} / F_p)$ and that it is infinite. also i showed that $\overline{F_p} \ ^{<Fr>} = F_p$. now i need to show that $Gal(\overline{F_p}/F_p)$ is abelian.
@Liad $Gal(\overline{F_p}/F_p)$ is the inverse limit over $Gal(F_{p^n}/F_p)$ for all n
so it's enough to show that these are abelian
@LeakyNun why? That's not the definition of a split torus that I can find
@MatheinBoulomenos But why is that obvious?
09:39
what is this limit ? i never learned it :/
@Liad inverse limit
@TobiasKildetoft what are you refering to?
@MatheinBoulomenos To the Galois group being such a limit
direct limit / inverse limit are useful tools in, you know, abstract algebra
Isn't that by definition
09:40
@MatheinBoulomenos the product is taking place in the opposite category
im learning abstract algebra right now , we never came across this
which corresponds to the tensor product in this category
@Liad it belongs to more advanced stuff
@LeakyNun oh true
nice, there are two streams of algebra conversation
So much confusion over which replies refer to what
09:42
So someone can explain to me in less advanced weapons how to show that it is abelian ? ^^
19 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
basically I want to find ring $A$ such that $A \otimes_\Bbb R \Bbb C \cong \Bbb C[X,X^{-1}]$
there is another
@Liad take two elements $\sigma$ and $\tau$ of the Galois group, and an element $x$ of the algebraic closure
we want to show that $\sigma(\tau(x)) = \tau(\sigma(x))$, right?
yess!
:)
now what?
$x$ lives in a finite extension
so just consider $\Bbb F_p(x)$
but finite extension is abelian
so you're done
finite extention is abelian? it is a field so of course it is abelien , we need to show that automorphism group is abelian dont we?
abelian meaning that the Galois group is abelian
09:45
any finite extention gives abelian Galois group?
if the extention was finite i could prove it in the case $\overline{F_p}/F_p$ because the mapping is one to one
Do we know that $\operatorname{Gal}(\Bbb F_{p^n}/\Bbb F_p)$ is abelian?
i think that follows from that it equals to $<Fr>$ right?
@MatheinBoulomenos is $\operatorname{Gal}$ contravariant?
@Liad sure
ok
so if we take $x \in \overline{F_p}$
09:48
Now, for $\sigma, \tau \in \operatorname{Gal}(\overline{\Bbb F_p}/\Bbb F_p)$ and $x \in \overline{\Bbb F_p}$, we want to show that $\sigma(\tau(x)) = \tau(\sigma(x))$
why $x\in F_{p \ ^ n}$ for some $n$ ?
look at the minimal polynomial of $x$
because $x$ is algebraic
yea ok
So $x \in \Bbb F_{p^n}$ for some $n$
and look at $\sigma$ and $\tau$ restricted to $\Bbb F_{p^n}$
@LeakyNun wait why we get it?
09:49
that gives $\overline \sigma, \overline \tau \in \operatorname{Gal}(\Bbb F_{p^n}/\Bbb F_p)$
@Liad how do you construct $\overline{\Bbb F_p}$?
all the algebraic element over $F_p$
@TobiasKildetoft @MatheinBoulomenos how do we see that $\Bbb R[X,Y]/(X^2+Y^2-1)$ is another solution? I mean, I can verify it, but how would one come up with this?
$x$ is algebraic i agree , but why this implies $x\in F_{p \ ^ n}$
just take $\Bbb F_p(x) \subset \overline{\Bbb F_p}$
that is a finite extension of $\Bbb F_p$
@LeakyNun something something Weil restriction
09:51
right because the index is the degree of $x$
hmm
the degree of the minimal polynomial of $x$
that's the degree of $x$
:-)
so back to the $\sigma , \tau$ , how we continue?
4 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
that gives $\overline \sigma, \overline \tau \in \operatorname{Gal}(\Bbb F_{p^n}/\Bbb F_p)$
5 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
and look at $\sigma$ and $\tau$ restricted to $\Bbb F_{p^n}$
Huh ok i think i got it
thanks..
@LeakyNun we did not use the fact that $<Fr> \le Gal(\overline{F_p} /F_p)$
10:01
based on how the question is asked i guess we should have
I beg to differ with your judg(e)ment
Consider a commutative group $M$ and a field $k$.
For any $k$-algebra $R$:
$\begin{array}{rcl} \operatorname{Hom}_{Grp}(M,R^\times) &=& \operatorname{Hom}_{k-Alg}(k[M],R) & \text{adjunction} \\ &=& \operatorname{Hom}_{k-Sch}(\operatorname{Spec}(R), \operatorname{Spec}(k[M])) \end{array}$
the first step is adjunction because $R^\times$ is the image of the monoid $R$ under the forgetful functor, and $k[M]$ is the image of the group $M$ under the free functor
so now $R \mapsto \operatorname{Hom}_{Grp}(M, R^\times)$ is a functor represented by $\operatorname{Spec}(k[M])$
Let $D(M) = \operatorname{Spec}(k[M])$
Then, $X(D(M)) = M$
10:31
$\operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Spec}(K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots‌​,X_n,X_n^{-1}]), \operatorname{Spec}(K[X,X^{-1}])), K^\times) \\ = \operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}], K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots,X_n,X_n^{-1}]), K^\times) \\ = K[\operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}], K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots,X_n,X_n^{-1}])]$
3
Q: Fourier transform of a sequence and inverse fourier transform

user8469759If $$ h(k) = \begin{cases} \frac{1}{2l+1} & -l \leq k \leq l \\0 & \text{otherwise}\end{cases} $$ Where $l \geq 0$ is some integer. I've done some computation and the summation $$ F[h](\omega)=\sum_{k=-\infty}^{+\infty} h(k)e^{j\omega k} = \frac{1}{2l+1}e^{-j\omega} \frac{\sin(\omega(l+1/2))}...

$K^\times = \operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}],K)$
oh lmao it's just yoneda innit
$$\begin{array}{cl}
& \operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Spec}(K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots‌​,X_n,X_n^{-1}]), \operatorname{Spec}(K[X,X^{-1}])), K^\times) \\
=& \operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}], K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots‌​,X_n,X_n^{-1}]), K^\times) \\
=& \operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}], K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots‌​,X_n,X_n^{-1}]), \operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}], K)) \\
=& \operatorname{Hom}(K, K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots‌​,X_n,X_n^{-1}])~~~\text{[Yoneda]} \\
=& K[X_1,X_1^{-1},\cdots‌​,X_n,X_n^{-1}]
10:51
>implying a lesser mortal can prove the RH
>no, not really
>well, it's an "elementary" equivalent
>well, that ought to make no difference

>might be rubbish, but I haven't been able to find anything, if you're bored you might as well read it
@VincenzoOliva Yay. Let us know when you get your million dollar prize money.
@TobiasKildetoft hi
@LeakyNun Hi
does the above make sense?
@LeakyNun I don't really have time right now unfortunately. I need to finish some character computations before heading home.
10:54
ok
@TobiasKildetoft I don't really believe that, but I'd like to have someone find the error
@VincenzoOliva Then why upload a place nobody will find it? Use arXiv
Actually, I take that back. No point in putting something on arXiv which has no chance of being correct anyway.
@TobiasKildetoft I actually posted it on the Fb group " >implying we can discuss mathematics", it got more than 1200 views
$T(K) := \operatorname{Hom}_{F-Alg}(\operatorname{Spec}(K),T)$
@TobiasKildetoft I actually posted it on the Fb group " >implying we can discuss mathematics", it got more than 1200 reads. A few guys took the time to ask me something of it
11:03
$\operatorname{Hom}(T_K, \Bbb G_m) = \operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Spec}(K),T_K), \operatorname{Hom}(\operatorname{Spec}(K),\Bbb G_m)) = \operatorname{Hom}(T_K(K), K^\times)$
$T_K = GL_1^n$
$T_K(K) = (K^\times)^n$
@LeakyNun That seems wrong (if I understood you correctly)
hmm
why is it wrong?
The second equality is right by definition, but I don't think the first equality is right
it's just yoneda
So you want to say morphisms of $K$-schemes $T_K \rightarrow \mathbb{G}_m$ are the same as morphisms of their functor of points
But that's not what you wrote there lol
11:09
I don't know 50% of what I write
What is true is that morphisms of $K$-schemes $T_K \rightarrow \mathbb{G}_m$ is the same as morphisms of functors $Hom(-,T_K) \rightarrow Hom(-,\mathbb{G}_m)$
But you put $\mathrm{Spec}(K)$ there, so $Hom(\mathrm{Spec}(K), T_K)$ and $Hom(\mathrm{Spec}(K),\mathbb{G}_m)$ are sets
are they not groups?
i.e. what you wrote there is saying that morphisms of $k-$schemes $X\rightarrow Y$ is the same as morphisms $X(k) \rightarrow Y(k)$
and that is obviously not true! because you can have $k-$schemes $X,Y$ such that $X(k),Y(k)$ are empty
For example the scheme $\mathbb{R}[X,Y]/(X^2+Y^2+1)$ has no $\mathbb{R}$-valued points (worth making sure you know why)
but $T$ splits over $K$
i.e. $T_K = \Bbb G_m^n$
Hm ok maybe in your case it could be true (need to think a bit..) - but at least I think you'd need to say more to justify your equalities
11:21
I see
ok what about this as an example: if you take $T_K = \mathbb{G}_m$ too, and let's say everything is over $K=\mathbb{F}_2$.

Then the final thing in your equality has size $1$, but for the first thing you are looking at morphisms from $\mathrm{Spec} \mathbb{F}_2[T,T^{-1}] \rightarrow \mathrm{Spec} \mathbb{F}_2[T,T^{-1}]$, which has more than 1 element.
hmm
What do they mean "an element of $L$ gives us a map $l : T(K) \to K^\times$?
$L:= Hom(T_K, \mathbb{G}_{m,K})$. So an element of $l$ gives you a morphism of schemes $T_K \rightarrow \mathbb{G}_{m,K}$, and hence a morphism of $K$-valued points $T_K(K) \rightarrow \mathbb{G}_{m,K}(K) = K^{\times}$.
why does a morphism of scheme give a morphism of rational points?
what is the dictionary?
Well a $K$-rational point is a map $\mathrm{Spec}(K) \rightarrow X$. If you have a morphism of schemes $X\rightarrow Y$, then you can just compose :)
11:29
hmm
(btw if you want I can come by (I'm at imperial) for a while if it's easier - but on the other hand I know nothing about algebraic groups)
now?
would you be there tomorrow?
oh im probably here every weekday
lmao
I'm not really there today
so maybe tomorrow
do you know what "dual lattice" means?
Let $X$ be a set, and $\mathcal P(X)$ be the power set of $X$. Consider the operations $\Delta$ = symmetric difference (a.k.a. "XOR"), and $\bigcap$ = intersection. So, $\Delta$ behaves as addition, whose identity is $\varnothing$.
11:32
yeah just let me know if you have stuff about understanding the language in AG (that i might be able to help)
Is it true that every element of this ring has additive order $2$? It seems like, no. Since $\varnothing$ has order 1.
well everything except that has order 2
For a lattice in $\mathbb{R}^n$ yes lol
need to think a bit to see what he meant in this context
@Silent In every group the identity has order 1, but everything else has order $2$ here
Thank you very much
11:54
@AlessandroCodenotti, Is this true: $\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ has these ideals: $d\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ for every divisor $d$ of $n$. Out of these maximal ideals are those only which are $d\mathbb Z/n\mathbb Z$ where $d$ is prime.
Well what do you know about ideals of $R/I$ in terms of ideals of $R$?
Would anyone want to chime in on this question at another SE?
21
Q: Is GameScience's non-cylindrical seven-sided die a balanced/fair die?

doppelgreenerYou might have come across GameScience's seven-sided die before: There's mixed discussion of whether it might be biased toward the 6 and 7 faces (the 6 being on the opposite side of the 7 you can see in the photo). It's a GameScience die, and they tend to market themselves on making properly f...

What started out as a joke argument has evolved into a scientific pursuit of a mathematical proof.
Anyone with a strong physics, geometric, and/or stochastic background would feel right at home dealing with this question.
@AlessandroCodenotti here $I$ is ideal of $R$? There is a bijective correspondence between : set of ideals $K$ of $R$ with $I\subset K$, and ideals of $R/I$
12:13
@Silent Right, what about maximal ideals? And which ideals of $\Bbb Z$ contain $n\Bbb Z$?
$d\Bbb Z$ where $d$ divisors of $n$ contain $n\Bbb Z$.
Yup, so the first part is correct. What about maximal ideals of $R/I$ in terms of maximal ideals of $R$?
$I$ is maximal ideal if there is no ideal $K$ such that $I\subset K$, ie, $R/I$ is a field.
@AlessandroCodenotti I can see when $R/I$ is field: maximal ideal is $(0)$.
$K$ maximal ideal of $R$ if $K/I$ maximal ideal of $R/I$?
yeah
because $\pi:R\to R/I$ preserves the inclusions
12:33
thank you very much
Hi!
You play a game using a standard six-sided die. You start with 0 points. Before every roll, you decide whether you want to continue the game or end it and keep your points. After each roll, if you rolled 6, then you lose everything and the game ends. Otherwise, add the score from the die to your total points and continue/stop the game. When should one stop playing this game?
For this question, I found the answer as $n= 2$ Let me explain How I got that: Let $X$ represents the number that comes up on the die.
Therefore the game continues as long as $X<6$,
So, $P(X=6)=nCrp^r q^{n−r}$ where $r=1$ then we have $\dfrac{1}{6}=nC_1 \times \dfrac{1}{6} \times \biggr (\dfrac{5}{6}\biggr )^{n-1}$ Which gives $ n = 1$
 
1 hour later…
14:01
@TedShifrin your book I found for $40 came in , and its high quality and definitely looks authentic! there's a label "ILLEGAL for Sale in USA" on the cover, oops
I'm not sure how it works but it's way too nice and high quality to be a bootleg , 90% sure
the website I ordered from didn't mention the "illegal for sale in usa" part for some strange reason
good thing it doesn't say "illegal for purchase" i guess
if the original is in color, then the illustrations being in black and white would partly explain the price difference. also it's paperback. but I suspect it's something something bureaucracy something pls don't send me to prison
14:23
Hello
Let $p=2^n+1$ be a prime. How can we show that $n=2^k$ for some $k \in \mathbb{N}$ ?
@LeakyNun why do you need so many homs? $K[X,X^{-1}]=K[\Bbb Z]$, so the statement is just a special case of the adjunction you mentioned
@MatheinBoulomenos which statement?
Hey @LeakyNun
Do you maybe have an idea?
$\operatorname{Hom}(K[X,X^{-1}],K)=K^\times$
I'm still trying to understand this paper
14:26
I was just commenting on some stuff you wrote
you can also prove this with universal properties of polynomial rings and localizations
@Evinda let $n= 2^k m$ where $m$ is odd. Show that $2^{2^k} + 1 \mid 2^n + 1$
Also note that if the commutative monoid $M$ is not a group, then $k[M]$ represents the functor $R \mapsto \operatorname{Hom}_{Mon}(M, (R,\cdot))$
not $R \mapsto \operatorname{Hom}_{Grp}(M,R^\times)$
14:30
e.g. if $M=\Bbb N$ the free monoid on one generator, then $k[M]=k[X]$ represents the functor $R \mapsto \operatorname{Hom}_{mon}(\Bbb N,(R,\cdot))=R$ where we used the free-forgetful adjunction for monoids
Where the functor $R \mapsto \operatorname{Hom}_{Grp}(\Bbb N,R^\times)=R^\times$ is represented by $k[\Bbb Z]=k[X,X^{-1}]$
there's another adjunction that explains this: $\Bbb Z$ is the Grothendieck group of $\Bbb N$
14:52
If $M$ is some module, what does $End_\Bbb{Z}(M)$ denote?
endomorphisms as an abelian group
so all $\Bbb Z$-linear maps $M \to M$
this has the structure of a ring with pointwise addition and composition as multiplication
Ah, I see. Thanks!
Hi! Can someone help me with some percentages?
So I have two possibilities.
One test will succeed 46% of the time. (Fail 54% of the time)
And another will succeed 48% of the time. (Fail 52% of the time.)

If I do each one 5x in a row.
How do I calculate how much difference that 2% makes?
Could you give me an example of twin primes q,p such that x^2=q mod p and x^2 =p mod q have either both or non of them a solution?
Or does this hold for any prime twins?
15:07
@LeakyNun I am confused right now... Why do we do it like that?
@Evinda why not
@LeakyNun Why will be n in the form $2^k m$ ?
you can always divide by 2 until it is odd
I see... And how could we show that $2^{2^k} + 1 \mid 2^n + 1$ ?
Does it hold that $(2^{2^k \cdot m})=(2^{2^k}+1) ((2^{2^k})^{m-1}+ \dots+1)$ ? @LeakyNun
let $a = 2^{2^k}$
show that $a+1 \mid a^m+1$
15:25
How can we show this? I just know the formula for $\frac{a^m-1}{a-1}$ ... :/ @LeakyNun
$m$ is odd
Yes, so we write it as $m=2d+1$. But does this help somehow?
$a^5 + 1 = (a+1)(a^4-a^3+a^2-a+1)$
Ok I see... but having that $2^{2^k}+1 \mid 2^n+1$, how do we deduce that $n=2^k$ ? @LeakyNun
you can't ask me for every step
15:35
from this it follows that $2^k \leq n$
but this is already known
isn't it?
@GFauxPas Nope, no color. That would have added $100 to the cost, I'm sure.
Hi @Ted
Sanity check: holomorphic maps between complex manifolds preserve orientation, right?
because the Jacobians in local coordinates have positive determinant if they define a $\Bbb C$-linear map
Could you give me an example of twin primes q,p such that $x^2\equiv q mod p$ and $x^2 \equiv p mod q$ have either both or non of them a solution?
Or does this hold for any prime twins?
@TedShifrin then it must be some sort of agreement between publishers to keep the price gouged in the US. Looking fwd to reading it
@Evinda a prime can only have 2 divisors
15:49
Yes, I thought of it too right now... we have that $2^{2^k}+1 \mid p$ and so $p=2^{2^k}+1$ impying that $n=2^k$ @LeakyNun
right
Great!!! Thank you :)
@MaryStar Suppose $q=p+2$, then $\left( \frac{p}{q} \right) \left( \frac{p}{q} \right) = (-1)^{\frac{(p-1)(q-1)}{4}}=(-1)^{\frac{p^2-1}{4}}$ Note that if $p$ is odd, then $8$ divides $p^2-1$, so this is equal to $1$
I also want to show that when $p=2^n-1$ is a prime number then n is a prime.

So we assume that n is composite. Then $n=n_1 \cdot n_2$ where $(n_1,n_2)=1$
Then $p=2^{n_1 n_2}-1$.
@MaryStar so yes, this holds for any prime twins
15:51
Why contradicts this the fact that $p$ is a prime? Or don't we find in this way a contradiction? @LeakyNun
27 mins ago, by Evinda
How can we show this? I just know the formula for $\frac{a^m-1}{a-1}$ ... :/ @LeakyNun
@Evinda if $n \mid k$, then $2^n -1 \mid 2^k -1$
Because then the field with $2^n$ elements is a subfield of the field with $2^k$ elements, so Lagrange applied to multiplicative groups implies $2^n-1 \mid 2^k-1$
Hey @Daminark
@MatheinBoulomenos Ah ok! Thank you!
16:08
The function $x^{1/3}$ is

A. differentiable at $x = 0$

B. continuous at $x = 0$

C. concave

D. none of the above , Question was like this. how do I choose the domain and range? if I choose range to be complex. then function is not well defined. right? If a function is $f:\mathbb R^+ \to \mathbb R$ then A) is false. rest of the above are true. am I correct?
@secret am I correct?
I don't know if concavity is defined for complex functions
@MatheinBoulomenos Ah I see... Thank you :)
@Secret okay
16:28
concave on which interval? do you mean on whole of $\Bbb{R}$ ?
@ManeeshNarayanan
I think we cannot talk about convexity or concavity at $x =0$, but when $x>0$ then the second derivative of $f(x) = x^(1/3)$ is $<0$ imlying concavity! so its concave on $(0,\infty)$
@ManeeshNarayanan
16:59
how do you define convexity at a point?
@BAYMAX
@Mathei You asked me about the topological picture of Tate homology and I forgot to respond
My immediate feeling would be that convexity is a property of an interval, not of a point
I suppose the definition of a convex set as being closed under convex combinations is trivially true if the set consists of one point
Let $f:\mathbb{R}^n\rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ be twice differentiable and homogeneous of degree 2.

To show that the function has at each root an extrema, do we have show that the first derivative is equal to $0$ if the function is equal to $0$ ?

Also how can we show that $f$ is in the form $f(x)=\frac{1}{2}x^T\cdot H_f(0)\cdot x$, where $H_f(0)$ is the Hessian Matrix of $f$ at $0$ ?
It's less inspiring than you might think. Let G be a finite group and X be a space. Then we write X_{hG} for (X x EG)/G, and X^{hG} for Map^G(EG, X). Ideally everything is really done in some "stable category", so we can add maps. You can come up with a map X_{hG} -> X^{hG}, given by 'averaging'
More precisely, Map^G(EG, G) is contractible (this is the group cohomology statement that cohomology with coefficients in $\Bbb Z[G]$ is trivial)
17:16
Wow! those guys in the homotopy room really got their hate on for me.
So X_{hG} ~ (X x EG x Map(EG, G))/G. Then the map sends (x, v, f) to the map sending v to f(v)x
You then just define Tate homology to be the homology of the cofiber of this map. It's kinda the same thing as in group homology: you come up with a comparison map between homology and cohomology and Tate fits into an exact sequence
For this to work you need to work in some sort of stable category so you can add maps - of course in spaces Map(EG,G) is G, and has no fixed points
But the claim that Map^G(EG, G) = * is true in spectra, or chain complexes
17:57
@MikeMiller 'averaging' sounds like something you could do with a Haar measure in a compact group
That's good intuition and indeed this procedure can be carried out sort of for a compact Lie group
In that case you can identify Map^G(EG, G) with a copy of the ground ring concentrated in degree dim G; it carries an action by pi_0 G, where g acts by Det(ad(g)) in +-1
In particular you still get this description of Tate homology as the difference between group homology and cohomology, but with a shift (dim G) and a twist (the determinant of adjoint representation)
In de Rham world this should all be possible to describe as literally averaging
18:16
Hello, very quick question. In this guys answer, he says that $Q$ has smaller dimension than $P$, thus the map cannot be injective. But it seems as though his inequality right before that statement claims just the opposite: that the dimension of $Q$ is bigger than $P$. Can anyone please clarify for me?
4
A: Determinant of a matrix $A$ is zero when its has a zero submatrix of dimentions $p \times q$ and ...

Chris EagleLet $K$ be the scalar field, and $f$ be the linear map from $K^n$ to $K^n$ associated with $A$. The fact that $A$ has a $p \times q$ zero submatrix implies that $K^n$ has a $q$-dimensional subspace $Q$ and an $(n-p)$-dimensional subspace $P$ such that $f(q) \in P$ whenever $q \in Q$. Since $p+q \...

hi bois
1
A: Solving explicitly or by induction: $0 \leq 2^{(n/2+10)}-2\pi n^{(3/2)}$

Mohammad Areeb Siddiqui$$2\pi n^{(3/2)} \leq 2^{(n/2+10)}$$ $$\log_2 (\pi n^{(3/2)}) \leq (n/2+9)$$ $$\log_2 (\pi)+\dfrac{3\log_2(n)}{2} \leq (n/2+9)$$ $$\log_2 (\pi)-9 \leq \dfrac{n- 3\log_2(n)}{2}$$ $$n- 3\log_2(n) \geq -14.69$$ $$3\log_2(n) - n \leq 14.69$$ Let $y=3\log_2(n)-n$ To see what is the maximum value of ...

is this approach correct?
@MikeMiller that's very interesting. Do you know Farrell-Tate cohomology?
18:38
@BalarkaSen are you doing a disappearing act lol
@Mathei I am largely ignorant but I think it fits into this framework. The issue is that now the "dualizing object" Map^G(EG, G) is now just some silly thing
So it is harder to state as the cofiber of a map between homology and cohomology
I learned this from an article of Klein "axioms for Tate cohomology"
18:52
Can somebody help me with a quick response to a question?
Hey everyone!
Are both alternating subgroups $A_1$ and $A_2$ equal? i.e they only contain the identity?
Thanks
18:59
I thnk it just follows from the fact that the identity permutation is an even permutation

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