@Gigili The damn proble is the curved axis! The professor didn't explain it very well, he just said "We should take this curved axis". It seems it has to do with Lagrangian mechanics, which I know nothing about. I can understand the idea intuitively but we never finished a problem like this yet, so some things are pretty unclear.
Can someone help me with a rather simple question regarding automorphisms of cyclic groups? Suppose I have a cyclic group $C_{2}$ with 2 elements and a cyclic group $C_{4}$ with 4 elements. Is it true that $C_{2}\cong\operatorname{Aut}(C_{3})$ and that $C_{4}\cong\operatorname{Aut}(C_{5})$ ?
I meant to say: We know that number of automorphisms = number of generators, if we use these two facts: 1. A homomorphism is uniquely deter.... 2. Isomorphism maps....
@MarianoSuárezAlvarez Ha! I had some bad impressions of one professor that insists on the $\lim = \infty$ thing. But in general, I'm enjoying the other professor's expositions and rowing through the other's classes.
Ok so now I have a slightly more complex question that arises from my last one. I have now established that $$G=\operatorname{Gal}(\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_{13\cdot 7})/\operatorname{Gal}(\Bbb{Q}))$$ contains the normal subgroup $$H=\operatorname{Gal}(\Bbb{Q}(\zeta_{3\cdot 5})/\Bbb{Q}).$$ Is there anything I can say about $G/H$ ? That is, I know that $G/H\cong C_{3}\times C_{3}$, but I'm wondering if it is possible to write $G/H$ as something more simple.
in that "mathematical structure" is too vague a term; I have no idea what "creating a mathematical structure" means; and I don't know how topology analyses anything :)
@MarianoSuárezAlvarez Yes, I know. What I mean is that sometimes, with our mothertounge, we can be vaguer and transmit the same idea, use less words, more idioms....
Jean-Pierre Serre (born 15 September 1926) is a French mathematician. He has made fundamental contributions to the fields of algebraic geometry, number theory, and topology.
Biography
Early years
Born in Bages, Pyrénées-Orientales, France, to pharmacist parents, Serre was educated at the Lycée de Nîmes and then from 1945 to 1948 at the École Normale Supérieure in Paris. He was awarded his doctorate from the Sorbonne in 1951. From 1948 to 1954 he held positions at the Centre National de la Recherche Scientifique in Paris. In 1956 he was elected professor at the Collège de France, a positi...
@PeterTamaroff You're 17, right? You've got amply enough time before you decide even on the rough direction of your studies. Be open-minded, everything else would be a pity.
@MarianoSuárezAlvarez But it starts with sets and subsets, set operations, then indexed families, then products of sets, functions, relations, composition and diagrams, inverses, extensions restrictions and then arbitrary products. It doesn't seem so hard. =(
@Jordan, because there is no possible way a sensible person would insist with «I need an A on my final or I can't transfer» adter having been told repeatedly to stop that line of conversation
@Peter: I would really recommend that you get a firm grasp of (linear) algebra and real analysis first before you seriously endeavor entering general topology. You'll encounter enough point-set topology while doing that to cover all your needs for a long time. (I'm not saying you shouldn't do topology, but don't waste too much time with it right now).
I agree with@tb. I spent a fair amount of time reading Munkres and so on and it wasn't useless, but it's not a secret weapon like some other things are.
@leo don't worry then. Wast of effort and time. You should have told him that you assume choice (countable dependent one to be specific) per default, and all his arguments would have evaporated...
@DylanMoreland There was a guy called "Wolfgang Mückenheim" (Mücke=mosquito) who asked a ton of questions about infinity and uncountability (?) and basically said Cantor had it all wrong. (iirc)
I didn't read all his stuff. But I did look him up and he's got a degree in maths from Göttingen.
@tb I've been meaning to post a question about it. I want to see demonstrations of its alleged power. Just haven't gotten around to writing up the question. The side effect I am hoping for is that I get an idea of how to apply it.
@MattN That'd be really nice. My favorite exercise is: if $f:(0,\infty) \to \mathbb{R}$ is continuous and $f(nx) \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} 0$ for all $x \in (0,\infty)$ then $f(x) \xrightarrow{x\to\infty} 0$.
@MattN Sure, go ahead. You could link to Gowers's take on it, too, to save yourself some work. Another nice application is the uncountability of dimension of infinite-dimensional Banach spaces and of course the standard facts in basic Futile Attempts.
@PeterTamaroff Suppose that $f(x+n) \xrightarrow{n \to \infty} 0$ for all $x \in (0,\infty)$. Is the result still true?
@tb Thank you! I'll see. I don't want to save too much work because the process of writing the question is already intended to help me learn some things.
@tb Not that I remember! Thank you. I've been incoherent since Wednesday night. I have a hint of a headache since then and for some reason it causes me to be unable to focus. No idea what it is but I hope it'll go away soon. Hope you don't have the same.
@PeterTamaroff Take a function whose graph is a triangle of height $1$ in each interval $[n,n+1]$ and make the base of the triangle smaller and smaller.
@N3buchadnezzar You could also tell little kids: "If you don't stfu I'll rip off your scrotum and eat your balls. I'm Maori/Scandinavian you know! We eat balls"
@PeterTamaroff a bit. Yes. I only meant to say: $f(x+n) \xrightarrow{n\to\infty} 0$ for all $x$ is not enough to conclude that $f(x) \xrightarrow{x\to\infty}0$, while $f(nx)$ for all $x$ does suffice
@PeterTamaroff yes, that's one of the observations to make towards the solution: that intervals around $x$ are blown up in length if you multiply them with $n$.
I mean if a function approaches infinity it still has a general limit but it is is approaching infinity from the left and negative infinity from the right then it would have to be a one sided limit
this guide online is saying that if the function approaches infinity it is considered to not have a limit
What do you mean exactly by your question "what does it mean if I have the limit as x goes to infinity of f(x) = L"? Are you talking about the definition of what it means for that to exist and equal L?
Basically given an interval (a,b) show that that there is always a point in that interval with due to the density of $\mathbb{Q} \in \mathbb{R}$ This gives us the set $C_q$ will always be nonempty.
@Jordan the definition of $\lim_{x\to \infty} f(x) = L$ is that $\forall \epsilon>0 \exists K\in \mathbb R: x > K \implies \lvert f(x)-L\rvert < \epsilon$. One way of thinking about this to think of what it means that $\lim_{x \to c} f(x) = L$: For all $\epsilon>0$ there exists a $\delta>0$ such that $0 < |x-c| < \delta$ implies that $|f(x) - L| < \epsilon$. Then think about the notion of "$x\to\infty$" means: that $x$ "escapes away from all finite bounds" and you get the definition above.
Every element of $C$ is a cluster point and c is uncountable (due to it being perfect), so intersecting that set with $[0, \epsilon)$ gives us an uncountable. Right?
@arete Right. I would say that there is $n$ such that $\frac{1}{3^n} \lt \varepsilon$. Then $x \mapsto 3^n x$ will send $[0,\varepsilon) \cap C$ onto $C$.
@arete At some point in the Cantor set's construction in $[0,1]$ you'll have the interval $I_n = [0,3^{-n}]$ from which you remove the middle third. If you perform the Cantor set's construction starting with $I_n$ and blow everything up by $3^{n}$ you get the usual Cantor set in $[0,1]$ back. Self similarity is the keyword here.
it does not always prove that something is wrong, just that something is wrong in a specific case, so the statement could also be correct in specific cases just no the one that proved it wrong
I'm just trying to wrap my head around that because we know that the Cantor set is perfect and therefore uncountable. Isn't it the case that any interval of an uncountable set inherits the sets uncountability?