I will figure out how to continue that conversation with Acuriousmind. Unlike JD and vzn, I actually can use equations and I will show him what I mean and see if it is at least self consistent
Currently, I think the best way to gain an intuition of classical dynamics is to first solve for the solution of some equation of motion, and then take time slices and arrange those in chronological order
So in theory, 2 time physics can be understood that way without too many assumptions of our intuition
Another complication on what exactly is geometry is that when we drew some lines in euclidean space that are perpendicular with each other, it is obvious to us by looking at it. However, algebraically, the condition for perpedicular is actually an equation with n variables for example
Same applies for the notion of direction, which is not obvious when we only looked at the components. The notion of direction seemed to be some kind of relation need to be satisfied between the components, for example
Hi, is $\Bbb R^2$ as a subset of $\Bbb R^3$ simply all $(x,y,0)$ for $(x,y) \in \Bbb R^2$? or could it be also all $(x,y,17)$ for $(x,y) \in \Bbb R^2$?
This is soooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooooo coool
I can't find the reason why a function $f: \Bbb R^n \to \Bbb R^n$ restricted to $\Bbb R^k$ for some $k \lt n$ is of the form $g: \Bbb R^k \to \Bbb R^n$ with $g(x_1,\ldots,x_k)=f(x_1,\ldots,x_k,0,\ldots,0)$. Why are the other variables necessarily set to zero?
It is part of a proof and $f$ is a diffeomorphism and its derivative $D_xf$ is invertible. They argue that $D_xg$ has rank $k$ too since $g$ is a restriction of $f$ to $\Bbb R^k$. I'm trying to understand this argument.
@Daminark Okay :) And this does also generalize to $T:(-\varepsilon,\varepsilon)^n \to \Bbb R^n$ even thought $(-\varepsilon,\varepsilon)^n$ is not a vector space anymore?
I'm not really going for that here so much as, if you now have a smooth function from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to itself, and you restrict to the first k coordinates, find out what happens to the derivative
Consider two non-zero $p-$dimensional column vectors $ a$ and $b, p ≥ 2$. How many non-zero distinct eigenvalues does the $p×p$ matrix $ab^t + ba^t $have?
Consider two non-zero $p-$dimensional column vectors $ a$ and $b, p ≥ 2$. How many non-zero distinct eigenvalues does the $p×p$ matrix $ab^t + ba^t $have?
hi i got a question: $F$ is a field with $char(F) = p \gt 0$. $[F:F_p] \lt \infty$, i need to show that $[F:F_p] = p \ ^ n$ for some $n \ge 0$, someone can help?
Let $C = ab^\top + ba^\top$. Observe that $Cv = ab^\top v + ba^\top v = a(b \cdot v) + b(a \cdot v) \in \langle a,b \rangle$. Therefore, any eigenvector with non-zero eigenvalue must be in the form of $v = xa+yb$. Then, $Cv = (x(a \cdot b) + y \|b\|^2)a + (x\|a\|^2+y(a\cdot b))b$. This can be represented by the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} a \cdot b & \|b\|^2 \\ \|a\|^2 & a \cdot b \end{bmatrix}$, whose characteristic polynomial is $t^2-2(a \cdot b)t+(a \cdot b)^2-\|a\|^2\|b\|^2$.
Using Cauchy-Schwarz, one can show that it has two distinct roots
and those roots are non-zero, so there is two distinct non-zero eigenvalues @ManeeshNarayanan @Silent @Nûr
@LeakyNun @AlessandroCodenotti there was a typo in the exercise, the assumption is $[F: F \ ^ p] \lt \infty$ and need to prove that $[F: F \ ^ p ] = p \ ^ n$
i proved that $x \ ^ p - a \ ^ p$ is irreducible for each $a$ in the basis over $F \ ^ p$ this way : this polynomial is equal to $(x-a) \ ^ p$ so $a$ is inseparable so we can write it as $g(x \ ^ p)$ so the degree of the min poly must be at least $p$ so it is exactly $p$ , what do you think @LeakyNun ?
@anakhronizein No. I realise that that first derivative has some real meaning. It is the slope of the tangent of a function. It gives you a definite information of a function. So the usefulness or significance of anything for me lies in its utility. How does n-th derivative give me some definite information about a function?
I am studying for an exam in functional analysis and I need help on this item here:
Let $\{x_n \}_{n=1}^{\infty}$ be a sequence in a Hilbert space $\mathcal{H}$ such that $x_n \rightharpoonup 0.$ Recall that this means that $\langle x_n, u \rangle \rightarrow 0$ for all $u \in \mathcal{H}.$
1. By induction, prove that there exists a sub-sequence, $\{x_{n_k}\}_{k = 1}^{\infty}$ such that $\left| \langle x_{n_k}, x_{n_j} \rangle \right| \le \frac{1}{k}$ whenever $k > j.$
The nth derivative gives you $$\underbrace{\text{the rate of change}, \text{ of the rate of change}, \dotsc, \text{ of the rate of change of } f}_{n\text{ times}}$$
In mathematics, a Taylor series is a representation of a function as an infinite sum of terms that are calculated from the values of the function's derivatives at a single point.
The concept of a Taylor series was formulated by the Scottish mathematician James Gregory and formally introduced by the English mathematician Brook Taylor in 1715. If the Taylor series is centered at zero, then that series is also called a Maclaurin series, named after the Scottish mathematician Colin Maclaurin, who made extensive use of this special case of Taylor series in the 18th century.
A function can be approximated...
A rough summary is that the derivatives up to some fixed n contain enough information about the function to approximate it within a certain neighbourhood to a certain precision.
I actually thought is the way of cutting the sections for derivatives in more finer and precise location rather than a bunch or set ,Am I thinking right ??
i mean as per derivates we are precising the change in a certain quantity with respect to other in as set but as per nth derivate that set is more finer and precise
Well I think it's better said the same thing about a new object.
That is, you are looking at the rate of change in the (n-1)th derivative. The geometry that you are discussing lies in the new object, not the old one.
But there is probably a nicer way of thinking about it.
I just don't have any good ideas right this instant, sorry!
If i take the limit of an expression like this lim n->inf (thing1 - thing2) and both thing1 and thing2 turns out to be inf. Do they cancel each other out and I can actually say that the expression converges to 0?