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07:04
the set of all rationals can be er... visualise somewhat by weighting the length of the vertical markers with the size of its denominator
and repeating this process enough so that human eyes can no longer distinguish between any two markers
As for the reals with all the detailed structure in it... I am not sure yet
If you look closely, the linear ordering of the reals is actually a pretty strange one...
no matter how far and where you zoom in, it looks the same
it is kinda "homogenous" (exact mathematical jargon to be googled later)
This can be illustrated in the proof of the nested intervals theorem, in that you can pick any sequence of nested intervals and it will always converge to some real number
@Semi I managed to get a function which has it's flat part exactly at the integers
$2 \pi x+ \sin(\pi(2x-1))$ but then I realized that my partition points might not be evenly spaced at all :/ I don't know if this works.
couldn't tell you, alas
though I will point out that $\sin(\pi (2x-1)=\sin(2\pi x-\pi)=-\sin(2\pi x)$
So that simplifies your notation a tad
Okay thanks. Maybe in the excercise one isn't supposed to build the reparametrization explicitly but should just argue that it exists.
possibly
07:25
We use ordinal numbers to classify well orderings. Can we do something similar with linear orderings. Need to discuss with the logicians later...
@Secret but you see, every set are well-founded under $\in$
yes that is true, but linear ordering is a stronger condition than well foundedness
they are incompatible conditions
But there are many sets that are well founded and not linearly ordered (e.g. take {a,b,c,d} where c and d are incomparable)?
(I am not sure if "stronger" is the correct word I have in mind...)
they are incompatible conditions, which is why you can't do it like you do with well-orders
you can't embed the order of Z into any set
let alone finding a representing set
07:41
Right. In that case I am not sure what is the correct terminology that describes when I said something like "There are no well ordered sets that are not linearly ordered, but there are linearly ordered sets that are not well ordered". What is the logical quantity I am comparing between linear ordering and well ordering in this case?
well-ordering is a stronger condition than linear ordering
Ah I see, so in order to check whether two properties A and B are comparable and hence their relative strength is well defined, I will need to check whether A embeds into B or B embeds into A as your example of Z into some well founded set shown
you see, cardinals are sets modulo bijection, and ordinals are well-ordered types modulo isomorphism
you can always do the construction of "structure modulo isomorphism"
e.g. groups modulo isomorphism
but what makes ordinals stand out is that you can actually find representatives of those equivalence classes
ordinals are the representatives
whereas if you wanted to find representatives of groups modulo isomorphism you would need to make arbitrary choices
07:59
hmm...
"linear ordering modulo isomorphism" -> finding representatives -> using axiom of choice -> representatives form a well ordered set?

well foundedness is incompatible with linear ordering -> ord(Z) does not embed in some well founded set W -> ... -> Need to figure out whether it is possible to arrange the equivalence class of linear orderings into a linear order

Let $\eta$ be the linear ordering of the rationals. Then $\eta + 1$ is also a linear ordering which $\eta$ embedds into it... (defined by the rationals followed by one extra element after uh... the naturals embed in it)
24 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
they are incompatible conditions, which is why you can't do it like you do with well-orders
So do you mean not only we cannot find any linear ordering representatives without choice, we cannot even form a linear ordering of them?
@Secret I don't know about the latter. what I mean by the former is that you would not be able to find sets that are representatives, i.e. $(\Bbb Z,\le)$ can't be represented by any $(S,\in)$, so you aren't really dealing with sets themselves
your representative would not be able to use $\in$
but for ordinals you can use $\in$
which is why the whole theory of well-ordered sets and ordinals works
yeah, possession is nine tenths of the law for a good reason.
Right, the issue with linear ordering is that it needs infinitely decreasing chains of $\in$ which in ZF(C) is forbidden by the axiom of foundation
so, I mean, if you try to do linear orderings modulo isomorphism, it wouldn't be more interesting than groups modulo isomorphism
$\chi(t) = \det(tI-A)$ is really abuse of notation
it isn't $A$ there, it's the embedding of $A$ from $\mathcal M_n(k)$ to $\mathcal M_n(k[t])$
and then Cayley-Hamilton isn't claiming $\chi(A)=O$. that is nonsense.
instead, we have an embedding $\psi_A : k[t] \hookrightarrow \mathcal M_n(k)$ sending $x$ to $A$
and then Cayley-Hamilton claims $\psi_A(\chi) = O$
Claim: If $f: R \hookrightarrow R'$ is a morphism of commutative rings, then $f^* : \mathcal M_n(R) \hookrightarrow \mathcal M_n(R')$ preserves determinants, i.e. $f(\det(A)) = \det(f^*(A))$
i.e. we have a commutative diagram: $$\begin{array}{rcccl} \mathcal M_n(R) & \overset {f^*} \longrightarrow & \mathcal M_n(R') \\ {\small \det} \downarrow & & \downarrow {\small \det} \\ R & \overset f \longrightarrow & R' \end{array}$$
all objects are rings, but $\det$ isn't a ring homomorphism, so unfortunately the diagram is only in the category of monoids
So we work with this commutative diagram: $$\begin{array}{rcccl} \mathcal M_n(k) & \overset {f^\ast} \longrightarrow & \mathcal M_n(k[t]) & \overset {g^*} \longrightarrow & \mathcal M_n(k[A]) \\ {\small \det} \downarrow & & \downarrow {\small \det} & & \downarrow {\small \det} \\ k & \overset f \longrightarrow & k[t] & \overset g \longrightarrow & k[A] \end{array}$$
where $g$ sends $t$ to $A$
we're given a matrix $A \in \mathcal M_n(k)$
and then we have $tI-A \in \mathcal M_n(k[t])$
$\chi_A := \det(tI-A) \in k[t]$
the claim is that $g(\chi_A) = O$
@Astyx hi
08:30
hi
we see that $g(\chi_A) = g(\det(tI-A)) = \det(g^*(tI-A))$
4 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
and then we have $tI-A \in \mathcal M_n(k[t])$
other than that, we also have $tI-A \in k[A][t]$
I believe $k[A][t] \cong k[t][A]$, but this shouldn't be important
what we know is that $k[A][t] \hookrightarrow \mathcal M_n(k[t])$
@AlessandroCodenotti oh hi
I understood the determinant trick
and rewrote it myself in my notebook
I'm just exploring other proofs now
$$\begin{array}{rcccl} \mathcal M_n(k[A][t]) & \overset {f^\ast} \longrightarrow & \mathcal M_n(\mathcal M_n(k[t])) \\ \downarrow {\small \det} & & \downarrow {\small \det} \\ k[A][t] & \overset f \longrightarrow & \mathcal M_n(k[t]) & \overset {g^*} \longrightarrow & \mathcal M_n(k[A]) \\ & & \downarrow {\small \det} & & \downarrow {\small \det} \\ & & k[t] & \overset g \longrightarrow & k[A] \end{array}$$
$g$ sends $t$ to $A$ as usual
we have $tI-A \in k[A][t]$
CH says $g(\det(f(tI-A))) = O$
note that $k[A]$ is a commutative ring
we have a monic division algorithm for polynomials over commutative rings
$\det(tI-A) \in k[t]$
$\det(tI-A) I_n \in \mathcal M_n(k[t])$
$\det(tI-A)I_n \in k[A][t]$ as well, but this needs more justification
let's just suppose $\det(tI-A) = \sum c_i t^i$
$\det(tI-A)I_n = (\sum c_i t^i) I_n = \sum c_i (I_n t^i) \in k[A][t]$. This is the justification
Now by monic division algorithm, $\sum c_i (I_n t^i) = (I_nt - A)B + C$ where $C \in k[A]$.
now $k[A][t]$ is a polynomial ring over a commutative ring, and comes with an evaluation homomorphism $\phi_A : k[A][t] \to k[A]$ sending $I_n t$ to $A$
$\phi_A(\sum c_i (I_n t^i)) = \phi_A((I_nt - A)B + C) = (\phi_A(I_nt) - \phi_A(A)) \phi_A(B) + \phi_A(C) = (A - A) \phi_A(B) + C = C$
$\sum c_i A^i = C$
$\sum c_i (I_n t^i) \in k[A][t]$
$f(\sum c_i (I_n t^i)) = \det(tI-A) \in k[t]$
$f(\sum c_i (I_n t^i)) I_n \in \mathcal M_n(k[t])$
$f(\sum c_i (I_n t^i)) I_n = \det(tI-A) I_n = (tI-A) \operatorname{adj}(tI-A) \in \mathcal M_n(k[t])$ (sorry, there's no escape from using adjugate)
$f(\sum c_i (I_n t^i)) I_n = f((I_n t - A) B + C) I_n = (tI - A) B + C$
since $f(I_n t) = tI$
[inconsistent notation: $I$ vs $I_n$: they mean exactly the same here]
so $(tI-A)B + C = (tI-A) \operatorname{adj}(tI-A)$
where $C \in k[A]$
by counting degrees, $B=\operatorname{adj}(tI-A)$ and $C=O$, qed
so the diagram above is really the wrong diagram
btw $f$ is given through $f(\sum_i (\sum_j c_{ij} A^j) t^i) = \sum_i \sum_j c_{ij} t^i A^j$
09:34
Hi! I got a question about Functional analysis. $(F,G)$ is a duality,
Now I want to show, that for any $G_1 \subseteq G: (F,G_1)$ is a duality if and only if $G_1$ is dense in $G$ with respect to the weak star topology $\sigma (G,F)$
I posted it already here, in long length and with an attempt to the solution already: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2774134/…
I'd be very thankful I somebody could help :-) thanks!
09:58
If both row series and column series of a double series converge, does then the double series converge?
10:13
no
A big mystery: If our universe cannot contain a physical infinity, then why can our brains conceive it. Somehow, describing some infinities only need a finite number of symbols
@MatsGranvik just put, you know, 1/n on the diagonals and 0 elsewhere
It's as if let $f$ be a function that gives the amount of symbols needed to uniquely defined a transfinite number, then f(initial ordinals) is finite
But again, blowing up replacement and we cannot even count to $\omega 2$ so...
Somehow, the axiom of infinity allow us to write infinite sets with finite number of symbols. It will be interesting to see how $f$ differs in different foundation systems
10:52
o. .o'
11:16
Fascinating. I spend half a week on MSE seriously and I'm already annoyed by PSQ's, easy to find duplicates and rep farmers. How do you guys cope with that for years, except by not getting emotionally involved easily?
Hi, quick question: Wikipedia says: "The category Set of all sets has the subcategory of all cardinal numbers as a skeleton.", do we need axiom of choice in order to prove this? Or do we need axiom of choice in order to prove that set has subcategory of all ordinal numbers as a skeleton?, I believe the second one is equivalent to axiom of choice but I am unclear about the cardinal case.
But matrix $\begin{pmatrix}1&i\\ i&-1\end{pmatrix}$ does have repeated root of zero, but null space is only one dimensional. @LeakyNun
this question is in reference to above two pics
@KonformistLiberal I think the first one about cardinal numbers does not need axiom of choice
@LeakyNun Don't we define card(x) as the smallest ordinal which is bijective to x?
11:29
that isn't how I would define it
I'm not sure
Actually the ordinal case is not skeletal I think, because there are some bijective ordinals which are not the same.
How would you define it?
@Silent so it isn't diagonalizable
@KonformistLiberal equivalence classes of sets under bijections...
but you need the axiom of choice to choose a representative, so I don't know if my definition is better
because each equivalence class is too large
@LeakyNun oh, thank u
So you think that the statement from wiki needs axiom of choice?
you need axiom of choice to show that every set has awell ordering (and so, a cardinal)
if you define a cardinal as an ordinal whose elements are all strictly smaller
11:32
@mercio but do we need AC to show that "The category Set of all sets has the subcategory of all cardinal numbers as a skeleton."
I think so ?
AC is needed to show that R admits a well-ordering, right ?
which is equivalent to R being in bijection with a cardinal number, right ?
Without choice you can have sets which are not in bijection (isomorphic in Set) with any cardinal
don't we define cardinalities as equivalence classes? or is cardinality different from cardinal?
i think a cardinal number is defined as a special kind of ordinal
one that is larger than all of its elements
@AlessandroCodenotti are you familiar with grassman algebra?
11:36
Alessandro: infinite dedekind finite sets for example
Leaky, Mercio: I thought card(A) is always defined as some bijection of A with a cardinal number, and cardinal numbers are equivalence classes based on bijections?
@LeakyNun not at all
Cardinals, if I recall ,is also defined as the cardinality of every initial ordinal $\omega_n$
that is, the smallest ordinal such that it has a strictly larger cardinality than the previous one
yes that's what i am saying
11:52
Ah, wait, it's another name for the exterior algebra, I know what it is but not much more then @Leaky
@AlessandroCodenotti hmm
12:15
@LeakyNun, Let $C[0,1]$ be the space of continuous real valued functions, on the interval $[0,1]$. This is a ring under pointwise addition and multiplication. I have to show that the group of units of $C[0,1]$ is cyclic.
no it isn't
Is this argument correct: if unit was cyclic, then it would be countable, but, there are uncountably many functions that have multiplicative inverses
right
is that a trick to have me tell you that it isn't cyclic
oh, i was doing true false, wrote exactly what there was in question paper, without paying attention. I had this feeling, too that it is not cyclic.
i did not trick
i'm just joking
12:26
ok :)
Tropical geometry is a relatively new area in mathematics, which might loosely be described as a piece-wise linear or skeletonized version of algebraic geometry. Its leading ideas had appeared in different forms in the earlier works of George M. Bergman and of Robert Bieri and John Groves, but only since the late 1990s has an effort been made to consolidate the basic definitions of the theory. This has been motivated by the applications to enumerative algebraic geometry found by Grigory Mikhalkin. == History of the name == The adjective tropical in the name of the area was coined by Frenc...
Random fish out of nowhere
@SK19 For the most part I stick to the chat nowadays so I’m cloistered from it. I think that’s not uncommon unfortunately: you care about MSE until you realize how much of a garbage stream it is
@Secret “[Maslov] also noticed that the Legendre transformation and solutions of the Hamilton–Jacobi equation are linear operations in the tropical sense.”
Huh, that’s an interesting statement
12:43
is there anyway to simplify $arctan(4/pi)$
?
Almost certainly no.
The handful of examples for which arctan simplifies nicely are things like arctan(1) = pi/4
or arctan(sqrt(3)) = pi/3
So if I have $ln(\frac{2}{\pi} \arctan{pi/4} +\arctan{4/pi}$ is there any way of evaluating it?
need a closing $
also, \arctan: $\arctan$, and there's no _ between the arguments of frac
Let me retype it
$ln(\frac{2}{\pi}(\arctan{pi/4} +\arctan{4/pi}))$
you also can just do \ln (and \pi for that matter)
hmm
mathematica seems to think that arctan(a)+arctan(1/a) = pi/2
which may well be true
12:53
^
i guess it goes like this. if $\theta=\arctan(a)$, then $a=\tan\theta$ and $1/a=\cot\theta = \tan(\pi/2-\theta)$
So $\arctan(1/a) = \pi/2-\theta = \pi/2-\arctan(a)$
Ahhh I see
Im so bad with those types of things
I'm not great with them either tbh
Guess how many marks that was worth?
sine/cosine addition, easy enough. tan addition, though, I never remember
easy to get it from sine/cosine, of course, but not something on the tip of my tongue
too many? :P
12:56
1
hah
well, that probably means they didn't really care about the simplification so much
We have a beginning section worth 10 marks
Actually like 20
But its a bunch of 1 mark quesitons
I think the point is more so to not do any ones you spot are too hard rather than do them all
For the question Find all real x obeying the inequality, $\sin(x)\leqslant -\root{3}/2$
looking for less than or equal to
\leq: $\leq$
For that, I'd recall how $\sin x$ is determined from the unit circle, and interpret the inequality geometrically
13:13
I got this as my answer $(2n+1)\pi+\frac{\pi}{3} \leq x \leq (2n+2)\pi -\frac{\pi}{3}$
I got that from a sketching sinx
The unit circle sounds interesting though could you explain how you would do that?
well, recall that points on the unit circle are parametrized as $(\cos\theta,\sin\theta)$ where $\theta$ is the angle traced out as you go along the unit circle CCW starting from $(1,0)$
So $\sin\theta\leq \sqrt{3}/2$ corresponds to points on the unit circle whose $y$-coordinate is less than $\sqrt{3}/2$
But if you think in those terms, then it's obvious that (mod 2pi) the only angles that would violate it are those from $\theta=\pi/3$ to $2\pi/3$
Thats so elegant
I love it
How would you express the answer?
that's a bit tedious. I guess $(0<x\mod 2\pi<\pi/3)\cup (2\pi/3<x\mod 2\pi<2\pi)$
not sure I like how that looks, but oh well
I don't think your answer quite works, though. Note that $\sin(\pi)=0$, so it certainly satisfies the inequality. But for $n=-1$ you have $-2\pi/3\leq x\leq -\pi/3$ and for $n=0$ you have $4\pi/3\leq x\leq 5\pi/3$
$x=\pi$ doesn't satisfy either of those
I think what you want is actually $(2n+1)\pi-\pi/3\leq x\leq (2n+2)\pi+\pi/3$
(the shortcut way of writing that is as $2\pi/3\leq x-2n\pi\leq 2\pi+\pi/3$, which combines the two inequalities I wrote)
13:35
Does that work though?
I think that only works for the negative x
Not sure what you mean
If you take n=1 does that answer hold?
What are the pre-requisites for non-linear analysis?
sure. on the unit circle, $2\pi+2\pi/3\leq x \leq 4\pi+\pi/3$ corresponds to first winding once around the unit circle, then through an angle $2\pi/3$. That places you at $(\cos(2\pi/3),\sin(2\pi/3)) = (-1/2,\sqrt{3}/2)$ i.e. $\sin(2\pi/3)=\sqrt{3}/2$
can you suggest some textbooks for the basic non linear analysis?
13:39
Oh sorry it looks like I typed it out wrong
then you increase the angle until you wind back around to $(0,1)$ and then keep going through an angle $\pi/3$ so that you're at $(\cos(\pi/3),\sin(\pi/3)) = (1/2,\sqrt{3}/2)$
Its $-\root{3}/2$
Since your y-coordinate remains below $\sqrt{3/2}$ the entire time, the inequality is valid the entire time
ahhh
okay, yeah, then I buy that
\sqrt
Note that, if $\sin(x)\leq -\sqrt{3}/2$, then you can multiply both sides by $-1$ to get $\sin(-x)\geq \sqrt{3/2}$
Thanks
you're approach is much more elegant
in which case the relevant bound is the complement of the one I quoted, i.e. $\pi/3\leq -x-2\pi n\leq 2\pi/3$
13:42
So is my answer still wrong?
and then multiplying by $-1$ and rearranging gives $-2\pi n-\pi/3\leq x\leq -2\pi n-2\pi/3$
but the name of $n$ is irrelevant, so I can relabel $-n\to n+2$ to get $2\pi n+4\pi -\pi/3\leq x \leq 2\pi n+4\pi -2\pi/3$
which is equivalent to your answer, and therefore yours is right :)
I just wanted to show explicitly that they in fact agreed
the logic in that case is that, if you want to be below the line $y=-\sqrt{3}/2$ on the unit circle $x^2+y^2=1$
Ahhh I see
then, mod 2pi, you need angles between 4*pi/3 and 5*pi/3
Thanks for your help @Semiclassical
which is just another version of what you wrote
np. you can see why the geometric approach is slick
the graphical approach is also sufficient, of course
14:05
Yeah I agree but yours is much easier to visualise in the head rather than mine which requires a bit of drawing (for me anyway)
$\{ (x,y) \mid xy = 1 \} \subseteq \Bbb A^2$ is a closed set
it only hits the units
oh wait A is over a field
14:39
If angles are continuous then a point at infinity may actually exists in some form for any radiating source
Simple process emerges complex phenomenon
@LeakyNun, how to find an $n\times n$ complex matrix $A$ such that there is no complex matrix such that $B^2=A$?
I'm looking at my notes for taking a subspace where a real square matrix has eigenvalues $\lambda, \bar{\lambda}, \operatorname{Im}(\lambda) \ne 0$. On this space, the operator acts by scaling and rotation. But the matrix in my proof is a clockwise rotation, and I want it to be counterclockwise :/
14:54
@Silent try $\begin{bmatrix}0&1\\0&0\end{bmatrix}$
how did you get that?
can I switch it to a rotation ccwise while staying in the eigenbasis?
15:06
ah, of course, you just switch the order of the basis vectors :)

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