« first day (2806 days earlier)      last day (2512 days later) » 

Zee
Zee
00:00
i dont think nonlinear theory had any progress
@MatheinBoulomenos Interesting, I had thought it was pretty much disjoint from the rest of math
@Zee wrong
we know global existence for lots of equations, but the proofs are all ridiculous
Zee
Zee
let me ask you this
and it may sound silly but its actully something i think about often
@0celo7 yeah, but as I said, I don't know how much PDE theory is actually involved, but it seems likely that there is some given the definition as eigenfunctions of the hyperbolic Laplacian
@MatheinBoulomenos do you mean the wave operator/d'Alembertian?
hmm, I have to look it up
Zee
Zee
00:02
lets say i give you this machine that answears everything you wanted to know about PDEs, now what?
I kill myself, probably
Mission complete
Zee
Zee
thats all you are? a PDE solver?
No, but you said everything I want to know
$\Delta_k = -y^2 \left(\frac{\partial^2}{\partial x^2} + \frac{\partial^2}{\partial y^2}\right) + i k y \frac \partial {\partial x}$ where $k \in \Bbb N$ is fixed, that's apparently called $k$th hyperbolic Laplacian on $\Bbb H$
that's a lot of stuff
@MatheinBoulomenos um, are you sure they mean hyperbolic in the wave sense and not hyperbolic in the -1 curvature sense
Zee
Zee
00:04
why do you wanna know so much about PDEs?
@0celo7 no idea, it's certainly possible that there is no connection to hyperbolic PDE at all and I got confused
lol ok @MatheinBoulomenos
can you link me?
I should be able to tell
@Zee idk, they're cool
In mathematics, a Maass cusp form, Maass wave form, Maaß form, or Maass form is a function on the upper half-plane that transforms like a modular form but need not be holomorphic. They were first studied by Hans Maass in Maass (1949). == Definition == Let k be an integer, s be a complex number, and Γ be a discrete subgroup of SL2(R). A Maass form of weight k for Γ with Laplace eigenvalue s is a smooth function from the upper half-plane to the complex numbers satisfying the following conditions: For all γ = ( ...
Ok so I'm pretty sure they mean hyperbolic in the Poincare disk sense.
Upper half plane corresponds to the Poincare disk with a certain metric
Zee
Zee
@0celo7 ask yourself why, am not saying their not, but do that tonight in bed
00:07
I'm trying to use Lebesgue theorem to show that if $f$ is Riemann integrable, then $f^2$ is Riemann integrable. If $x$ is a point of discontinuity for $f^2$, will it be a point of discontinuity for $f^2$?....Arguing contrapositively, if $f$ is continuous at $x$, then $f^2$ is continuous at $x$, because $f^2$ is a product of functions which are continuous at $x$ (alternatively, $f^2$ is the composition of two functions which are continuous at $x$). Does this sound right?
@Zee I've thought about it a lot and my only answer is they're cool
yeah, but isn't the "diff geo Laplacian" (sorry for the weird terminology, I know no geometric analysis) on a negative-curvature manifold actually a hyperbolic operator?
no! the Laplacian is always elliptic on a Riemannian manifold
and the term is "Laplace-Beltrami op" if you want no confusion
00:09
yeah then forget everything I said
ok
I was going to say that hyperbolic PDE is kind of a lonely world because, AFAIK, it has no applications outside of itself
applications to GR doesn't count, that's part of the field
really confusing to call an elliptic operator hyperbolic
presumably the guy who did it wasn't a geometric analyst :)
@MatheinBoulomenos btw I am at least taking some algebra next year (based on Hungerford)
I guess there's just convergence of bad terminology going on there
@0celo7 sounds good! (though I haven't read the book)
00:13
It looks pretty basic
@EricSilva yeah, people just use hyperbolic/elliptic/parabolic for so many different stuff
I'm also taking 3 analysis courses to balance out :P
and a topology class for fun
I'm only taking algebra next year
Unless a topics course pops up
I'm taking one number theory course which is a bit analytic, on modular forms and I'm taking 4 algebra courses to balance it out
nice
My reading course will probably take most of my time. We're going to make an effort to understand Morgan and Tian's book in some detail
00:15
@EricSilva what exactly?
@MatheinBoulomenos our graduate algebra sequence, it's rep theory first, then algebraic geometry, then I have no idea
If Kato's teaching, which I think he usually does, it's a good bit of algebraic number theory/geometry
Zee
Zee
@0celo7 what kinda of material would a course called "gluing constructions of cannonical metrics" entail ?
I'm down
@Zee Not sure but I would take it. I'm thinking about various gluing constructions along black hole boundaries
00:17
@EricSilva really nice! (though I like all kinds of algebra I've encountered so far)
I regret having not done more algebra
I like algebra and havent taken enough
But I was a double major for 2.5 semesters which really limited my time
Zee
Zee
@0celo7 I mean is that stuff PDEish or global or...?
In hindsight I should have done everything differently
@Zee do you not have a syllabus
Zee
Zee
00:19
No, nothing is posted aside from the title
It could even be algebraic geometry, I don't know
Who is teaching it?
Zee
Zee
ill just wait and see, it seems too advanced for me though
Micheal T Anderson
Right, he's going to be doing GR
Zee
Zee
what makes you say that?
That sounds like a very specific course
@Zee Because I know Anderson and one of his students
Zee
Zee
00:22
lol , i mean i know him too
Look up "Corvino-Schoen gluing", that might be something he's thinking about
do you know the following @0celo7
Zee
Zee
@0celo7 do you know the man or the work?
Let X be a compact Riemann surface associated to $w = \sqrt( (z - z_1) \ldots (z - z_N) )$ where $z_1,\ldots,z_N$ are distinict. Find the formula for genus in terms of N
Zee
Zee
and ill loook that up, thanks
00:23
@Zee The work, but I know one of his students personally.
Zee
Zee
@0celo7 thas funny, i know the man but not the work
@Zee Holy shit he solved the Nirenberg problem this year
Ah, not a full solution
Dang
Zee
Zee
he is probably the nicest professor i ever had
very humble
@Zee Unfortunately there's two Andersons in the same field so I can't say exactly that I know this one's work
I think I know the other one better
Zee
Zee
makes alot of mistakes adding fractions lol
00:25
@Adeek why don't you ask @BalarkaSen, he knows
Zee
Zee
whats this GR gluing
@MatheinBoulomenos It's a little strange how useful elliptic and parabolic PDE are for math in general but hyperbolic is kind of on its own and is the most difficult of the bunch
Zee
Zee
didnt even know it exsisted
Zee
Zee
ehhh looks too complicated
so whats the essential geometric idea behind this gluing stuff
what in gods name is mathematical relativity
00:33
God is dead
He remains dead
And we have killed him
:(
How shall we comfort ourselves, the murderers of all murderers? What was holiest and mightiest of all that the world has yet owned has bled to death under our knives: who will wipe this blood off us? What water is there for us to clean ourselves? What festivals of atonement, what sacred games shall we have to invent? Is not the greatness of this deed too great for us? Must we ourselves not become gods simply to appear worthy of it?
RIP Nietzsche
Zee
Zee
God does not do miracles , he does more , he turns sinners into saints
He had a very flamboyant writing style.
Zee
Zee
no i actully like him
although i dont agree with him
i dont think he agrees with himself
00:38
@Zee yeah, he was a fool who on a bright morning lighted a latern and ran to marketplace
Zee
Zee
is there an honost man?
@Math, what's that a reference to?
Thus Spoke Zarathustra?
no, it's a reference to the beginning of "the madman" in "the gay science" aka the text where he wrote "God is dead etc." for the first time
Zee
Zee
and that is obviously a refrence to diogenes
Diogenes was the man.
Zee
Zee
00:42
ya, he is almost transcendental in a way, not part of the world but beyond it
like a monk, without the hippie bullcrap
How are monks hippies?
Zee
Zee
well not monks but am thinking gurus
you know, if you like Nietzche
you should read Dostoyevsky
even Nietzche said he leanred from Dostyoevsky
I'm not too interested in Nietzsche atm
Zee
Zee
what are you intrested in?
Orbits ?
Buddhism atm
00:47
Hi!
Can anyone here explain to me the following step?
It's from the following Wiki article: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Conjugate_prior
I don't understand how the denominator becomes what it becomes in the last expression
I was trying to do it by myself
However, I am not sure how to proceed to obtain the desired Gamma function at the denominator
Don't do it by hand. Simply note that we end up with what looks like a gamma distribution multiplied by some constant.
That constant being the beta function acting as the normalizer
I don't think it's worthwhile doing the computation
Btw, I am using a different notation, where s = H and f = T.
Good stuff happening to the family that I probably can't legally share
immigration related?
It would be nice to perform the calculations, but not now because I am tired
:D
But I think what I did is correct
I just need to show that the denominator is equal to $B(\alpha + H, \beta + T)$
01:18
@Akiva are you an algebra fan?
o wait, there's @Dami. would you mind looking at an algebra ex?
it's about finite groups
:p
@orbit-stabilizer Not immigration related, but career related
Oh shit let's go
All finite numbers are small and thus approximately equal to 3
@Daminark was that.. directed at me?
01:24
hm, alright, I guess I'll see that as a green light: let $G$ be a finite group with exactly two conjugacy classes. I want to show that #$G=2$. So let $Gx$ and $Gy$ be the two conjugacy classes. Let $N_x$ and $N_y$ be the associated normalisers. Then we know that #$G=\operatorname{index}[G:N_x]+\operatorname{index}[G:N_y]$. We would basically have to show that $G=N_x=\{gxg^{-1}\vert g\in G\}$, but.. not sure how?
@Silent Consider the circle with diameter AA' (A' being opposite to A). We want to show that the angle ABA' is 90 degrees.
Consider B', the point on the circle opposite B, and think about the quadrilateral ABA'B'.
@ShaVuklia Exactly two conjugacy classes… including $\{e\}$?
So the two conjugacy classes would be the identity, and everything else
oh right, of course
did not think of that
@ShaVuklia and then use the orbit stabilizer theorem
omg leaky, do you ever sleep:p
I don't know if I've had that theorem
I had another approach tho
it's 09:34 AM now
01:35
03.35 here
ohh
so you just woke up, I hope:p
@ShaVuklia whoever teaches conjugacy classes without the orbit-stabilizer theorem should be hanged imo
right
let me check
oh right
yea, indeed, I wanted to use that
didn't know it was called like that
my book notes: "The case for infinite groups is entirely different. Any infinite group in which each nontrivial element has infinite order may be embedded in a group with just two conjugacy classes: {1} and the set of all nontrivial elements."
right, I'm too sleepy to process that unfort.
Remind me how @orbit-stabilizer works?
01:38
Okay lemme get on a computer because TeX
order of the orbit equals index of the associated stabilisor @Akiva
@AkivaWeinberger you mean the theorem itself or how it is applied here?
@ShaVuklia so you know how to do it now?
@leaky yea, I think so. Let $\operatorname{ord}G=n$. And let $q=[G:N_x]$. Then we have $q\mid n$, so write $n=kq$. The orbit-stabilizer thm gives: $kq=1+q$, so $q=1/(k-1)$. Since $q$ is an integer, the only possibility is $q=1$
Zee
Zee
I love the smell of steak in the morning
01:46
I found a proof of a similar theorem online: groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/…
anyhow, I'm off the bed. I appreciate your help a lot leaky!
cya
01:58
@Zee
Do your hw
Hahaha
Anyone know how existence of a nowhere-vanishing vector field on S^n implies there exists a continuous map $V: S^n /rightarrow S^n$ such that $<V(x) , x> = 0
For all $x \in S^n$?
$V: S^n /rightarrow S^n$
Sorry, I messed up the Latex, but i think its clear what Im asking
@NicholasRoberts If you view the sphere in the standard way in $\Bbb R^{n+1}$, then tangent vectors correspond to vectors satisfying $\langle v,x\rangle=0$
@0
@0celo7 Can you explain a little more in detail? Thanks
think geometrically
Wouldnt we need to define the vector field initially as the normal vector field on S^n?
$S^1\subset\Bbb R^2$
02:07
And then all tangent vectors will be Perpindicular implying the dot product will vanish?
there's nothing normal here?
$v\in T_xS^1$ is orthogonal to $x\in S^1$
draw a picture
Yes, I see that
So is the function simply the vector field?
The function we seek to show existence of
yes
Are you defining manifolds abstractly or via embeddings?
This is respect to do the dot product on $R^{n+1}$
You need to somehow show that the geometric interpretation of $TS^n$ corresponds to whatever definition you're using
It's kind of obvious but a rigorous proof takes some thought
02:12
I believe this via embedding as the question says to take the dot product using R^n+1
ok then the geometric picture is sufficient
So when writing this up, how would does this sound? "Indeed, existence of a non-vanish vector field V on S^n gives us that $<V(x) , x> = 0 \forall x \in S^n$. This is because tangent vectors are orthogonal to vector on the sphere"
Sorry, few typos.
orthogonal to the position vector on the sphere
(this can actually be proved easily using the tangent vector to curve definition of tangent vectors)
Yes, thats better wording. Interestingly enough, this question im working on is an outline of the proof of the hairy ball theorem.
It makes you prove a chain of equivalences that imply it
yeah this is how everyone proves the HBT :)
what book are you using
02:17
Lee's intro to smooth manifolds. Ever read it? Whats your opinion on it
Depending on the time period I'm sent back in time to, I would take it with me and become a legendary mathematican
great book
Lol! My friend Zee hates it
Of course he does
But its ok. The bigger problem is that our Prof doesnt follow along with it but yet he assigns problems in the book that reference material we never covered in class
Of course as grad students we should be expected to deal with this sorta thing, but its a tad annoying
I don't know why anyone would have a problem with it. I never used it for learning, but it's nice to have a detailed reference for such things
02:22
I dislike how he explains tensor fields as sections of the tensor bundle. Very un-intutitive explanation in my opinion
I learned tensors from physicists first
I don't know how I think about them, I just do
The more i deal with them, the less mysterious they become
they're not mysterious at all
they're just matrices
Anyhow, can you quickly explain how the dot product vanish is easy to prove using the tangent vector to curve defintion
im looking at it now and dont understand
Ok so you have a curve in $S^n$, say $x(t)$, with $x(0)=x$
and you have that $x'(0)=v\in T_xS^n$
But since $x(t)\in S^n$, $|x(t)|^2=1$
now differentiate this at $t=0$
exercise for you
where of course $|x(t)|^2=x(t)\cdot x(t)$, Eucl. dot product
02:30
Why differentiate the square? I thought you would differentiate the curve and evaluate that at t = 0?
Indeed, x'(0) = v, our tangent vector
@NicholasRoberts Did you differentiate the square or not
having trouble with differentiating the norm. With respect to which variable? All of them?
$t$
Before plugging in 0, i got the square root of the norm of x(t)
is this correct?
@0celo7
no
take the derivative of $\sum_i x^i(t) x^i(t)$
02:42
$2x^i(t)$
and let i range from 1 to n
dude, do you need to review calculus?
chain rule
That's a bit blunt, but uh
yeah
if you're differentiating position w/r/t time then you'd better not end up with position again
Lol, but isnt that just $x_i^2$?
No. The $t$-derivative of $\sum_i x^i(t)x^i(t)$ is not $\sum_i 2x^i(t)$
I feel stupid but what is it?
02:50
Simpler question: What's the $t$-derivative of $x^i(t)$?
To me, that would just be $\frac{d}{dt} \space x^i(t)$
Sure.
So why are you omitting that when you differentiate $\sum_i x^i(t)x^i(t)$?
So its $2x^i(t) \cdot \frac{d}{dt} x^i(t)$
Right.
You get a factor from the chain rule.
And let i run of 1 to n
Anyway @0celo7, I got 0
02:59
so you got $\sum x^i v^i=0$
that's what you wanted
Im just not seeing where we have one being a tangent vector and another a position vector in this calculation
Ah perhaps the x^i is the position vector.
I see
03:30
Let $V$ be a vector space and GL(V) be the associated General Linear Group. What is the name of the map $\psi : GL(V) \to V$? Does anyone know?
@Nameless but what is the map?
I mean, in some sense $GL(V) = \operatorname{Aut}(V)$
and we don't usually have a map from Aut(-) to -
Well never mind then, I thougt there was a name for it.
or is it the evaluation map that sends $A$ to $A(v)$ for every $v \in V$?
i mean, for every $v \in v$ there is an evaluation map $\psi_v:GL(V) \to V$ sending $T$ to $T(v)$
but, you see, $GL(V)$ is a group, not a vector space
03:47
anyone like representation theory of finite groups?
03:58
@NicholasRoberts not too familiar with it, but hopefully I know some of it
@orbit-stabilizer Answer.
I have integral of $\bar z$ over a circle centered at $i$ with radius $1$. I thought that $\bar z$ had a removable singularity at $z = 0$, turns it... it doesn't. Why?
@NicholasRoberts yuh
@AlexanderGruber awesome!
03:59
@orbit-stabilizer because it's perfectly continuous at $z=0$?

« first day (2806 days earlier)      last day (2512 days later) »