Confusion about seperated sets?
The definition of separated sets states that $A,B$ are separated if $\bar{A} \cap B = \emptyset$ and $A \cap \bar{A}=\emptyset$.
By this definition I don't see how $(1,2)$ and $(2,5)$ are separated as $\bar{A} = (-\infty, 1] \cup [2, infty)$ and $\bar{B} = (-\infty, 2] \cup [5, infty)$ now $\bar{A} \cap B = B$ and $\bar{B} \cap A = A$.
What am I doing wrong here?