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00:41
Q: What do you call someone who reads a paper on category theory?
A: A coauthor.
Q: How to become an author from a coauthor
A: By going past a pair of dual doors
Q: What about becoming a first author?
A: Do a bubble sort on the authors
01:02
Q: Why is the math chat empty?
A: Because they are being cartesian producted with an empty set
[The Cult of Infinity]
01:38
Hi
Can someone help me with the latex for prime factorization?
I have $Let\quad n={ { { p^{ { e }_{ 1 } } }_{ 1 } } }*{ { { p^{ { e }_{ 2 } } }_{ 2 } } }*...*{ p^{ { e }_{ n } } }_{ n }$
so far, but that looks really weird
Wow
hello?
02:05
[The Cult of Infinity]
0. We start with some logic, which give us the symbols and the inference rules
1. The first object to be constructed is the empty object $\varnothing$
user338510
Anyone explain why 1+1=1?
4
user338510
I need help.
@idk in what algebraic structure you encounter the identity 1+1=1?
user338510
Haven't you heard of 1+1=2?
user338510
But that's incorrect.
02:15
1+1 can be equal to anything depending on which algebraic structure youare in
@DarkRunner Let $n$ equal ${p_1}^{e_1}\cdot{p_2}^{e_2}\dotsb{p_n}^{e_n}$.
user338510
I want to know from the true mathematicians, why 1+1=1
(I guess it depends on if you want $p_1^{e_1}$ or ${p_1}^{e_2}$, they look slightly different) @DarkRunner
@idk …It doesn't
@idk As I have said, we need to know the details of the algebraic structure to understand how this is derived from the axioms
what exactly are the axioms in your algebraic structure?
user338510
What? You cannot defy the fundamental concept that 1+1 = 1.
02:16
@idk Assuming "+" means what it normally means and "1" means what it normally means
and "=" as well I guess
user338510
I want to have a good grasp of this fundamental concept.
@idk well, is your 1 the multiplicative identity, the + addition and = equality as we knew in first order logic?
Secret, he's trolling
Akiva: O ok, I see
@BalarkaSen Yeah, Gauss's lemma is the only time that the symmetry of the connection is used
so it's entirely 'cause of that
user338510
02:19
What? In which aspects am I trolling? (I am... shhh) I am simply asking for help.
Akiva: Btw, an algebraic structure where 1+1=1 and is distributive is one of the most trivial structure in existence (as we have discussed some years ago), because then every element will be idemponent to itself due to x(1+1)=x1 => x+x=x
so it will form an idempotent semigroup
If you ask Terrence Howard, though, he'll tell you that 1x1=2
Terrence Dashon Howard (born March 11, 1969) is an American actor and singer. Having his first major roles in the 1995 films Dead Presidents and Mr. Holland's Opus, Howard broke into the mainstream with a succession of television and cinema roles between 2004 and 2006. He was nominated for the Academy Award for Best Actor for his role in Hustle & Flow. Howard has had prominent roles in many other movies including Winnie, Ray, Lackawanna Blues, Crash, Four Brothers, Get Rich or Die Tryin', Idlewild, August Rush, The Brave One and Prisoners. Howard played James Rhodes in the first Iron Man and its...
This guy?
user338510
How would you go about solving for $x$ in $(x^2+3x+2)^2+3(x^2+3x+2)+2=x$?
He's wrong, and hilariously so, but he won't admit it
@idk I would simplify it, for a start
user338510
02:23
Here, I admit that $1+1=2$, how would you solve it?
@idk Oh, wait, no
user338510
Yes akiva I simplified it
That would be a quartic and those are hard
user338510
And i got solutions
user338510
by factoring
user338510
and trial and error
user338510
It factors to $(x^2 + 2 x + 2) (x^2 + 4 x + 6)=0$, BUT that took completing the square and some trial and error.
user338510
Surely, there must be a way to notice that the quartic is in the form $f(f(x))$, right?
Akiva: Well tbh, if 1 is the multiplicative identity, then 1x1=2 will give you the trivial group, since 2 will then become a multiplicative identity and hence 1=2
but anyway...
02:25
I noticed it, I don't know what to do with it @idk
user338510
Anyone offer help?
if it is $(x^2+3x+2)^2+3(x^2+3x+2)+2=0$, then it is easy to factor since that is basically a quadratic equation in disguise, but this is $(x^2+3x+2)^2+3(x^2+3x+2)+2=x$, and factoring becomes nontrivial
user338510
Yes, that's why I am stumped in finding a non-trial and error way to do it.
Oh, here's a good way to see it has no real solutions
First note that $x^2+2x+2$ is $(x+1)^2+1$ and thus always positive
So $x^2+2x+2>0$
Add $x$, that's $x^2+3x+2=f(x)>x$
So we have $f(x)>x$
Subsitute $f(x)$ into that, we get $f(f(x))>f(x)$
So we have $f(f(x))>f(x)>x$
Thus $f(f(x))$ is never equal to $x$
user338510
$x^2+3x+2=(x+3/2)^2-9/4+2=(x+3/2)^2-1/4$ might not always be greater than 0
02:35
@idk Right, but the point is that it's always greater than $x$.
user338510
That can't really help in finding the roots.
Sure it can. It tells you something very important about the roots of $f(f(x))=x.$
You were asking when $f(f(x))$ was equal to $x$, not $0$.
So I guess you wanted the roots of $f(f(x))-x$.
Meanwhile, I am thinking about what does $(x^2+3x+2)^2+3(x^2+3x+2)+2=x$ mean in terms of remainders...
Doesn't help much in finding the complex roots, though, I'll grant you
@Secret What, like, modular arithmetic?
user338510
02:38
There is probably a more elegant solution
I am trying to see whether there is a way to systemise the lone $x$ on the RHS so we can use the fact that the LHS is a pseudoqudratic on $(x^2+3x+2)$
because it is much easier to solve a pseudoquadratic than a quartic
Is $f(x)-x$ always a factor of $f(f(x))-x$?
Hm, I guess it is. Weird.
For any polynomial
user338510
No, there must be some reason for your discoveries.
Fixed points are also points of period 2.
user338510
Which can be explained with a great way.
02:40
I have a proof
Something that always bugs me about polynomials is that while they form a vector space, predicting where the roots of even a sum is nontrivial in general
Doesn't mean it's not weird
I think it just comes down to the fact that if $f(y)=y$, then $f(f(y))=f(y)=y$.
Proof: If $f(x)=x$, then $f(f(x))=f(x)=x$. Thus, any root of $f(x)-x$ (real or complex) is a root of $f(f(x))-x$.
akiva got sniped
02:42
Which is to say, fixed points are also points of period 2 (and period 3, period 4, etc.)
Hm, this doesn't necessarily work if $f(x)-x$ has double roots
but there's probably something Zariski-y you can do
In addition, $f(x)$ is alway a factor of $f(f(x)+x)$.
There's something strange about the behaviour of $f^n(x)$, it seemed to be converging to something...
Where $f'(x)=0$, $~(f^{\circ n})'(x)=0$.
Wait, that might not be true
Oh, it is.
1. Let n = 81^2018 × 12^2121 × 30^3121
.
(a) How many natural numbers are divisors of n? my attempt: 3^(2 x 2 x 2 x 1009) * 3^1 * 2^(2 x 3 x 7 x 101) * 30^3121
02:57
$(f^{\circ n})'(x)=\frac{df^{\circ n}(x)}{df^{\circ (n-1)}(x)} \frac{df^{\circ (n-1)}(x)}{df^{\circ (n-2)}(x)}\cdots f'(x)$
so if $f'(x)=0$, the derivative of the nested function has to be zero
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist Factor it into primes
81 x 12 x 30 = 3^4 x 3^1 x 2^2 x 2^1 x 3^1 x 5^1 = 2^3 x 3^6 x 5^1
But that ignores the exponents
So 81 is 3^4, so 81^2018 is (3^4)^2018 = 3^(4x2018)
3^4(2 x 1009) * 3^1 * 2^(2 x 3 x 7 x 101) * 30^3121
I think I mentioned that earlier, but how do I do 12^2121 and 30^3121?
Your factorization of 12^2121 is wrong
03:04
12^(3 x 7 x 101)?
We don't care about the exponent
Don't factor it
12 is 2^2 x 3
so 12^2121 is (2^2 x 3)^2121, which is
(2^2)^2121 x 3^2121
which is 2^(2x2121) x 3^2121
which is 2^4242 x 3^2121.
So 81^2018 is 3^8072, and 12^2121 is 2^4242 x 3^2121.
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/csc3qwamfi
Need to figure out how those extra stationary points emerge...
To factor 30^3121, we factor 30 into 2x3x5
Thanks. I lack a lot of common sense. Does this apply to 30^3121? When (5 x 2 x 3)^3121 = (5^3121) x (2^3121) x (3^3121)?
Yeah, but 6 isn't prime
03:08
woops 6 = 2 x 3
So that's, in the end,
3^8072 times 2^4242 x 3^2121 times 2^3121 x 3^3121 x 5^3121
Collect the things with the same base
(2^4242 x 2^3121) x (3^8072 x 3^2121 x 3^3121) x (5^3121)
2^(4242 + 3121) x 3^(8072 + 2121 + 3121) x 5^3121
2^7363 x 3^13314 x 5^3121
and that's the prime factorization
Now, we need to find all the divisors.
Any divisor is gonna be of the form 2^a x 3^b x 5^c.
(It can't have any other primes in it because then it wouldn't be a divisor of n)
Similarly, a can only be between 0 and 7363, because n only has 7363 twos in it
so there are 7363+1=7364 options for a
b and c, similarly, have 13315 and 3122 options
There seemed to be another class of fixed points in a quadratic nesting map $f^{\circ n}(x)$: Their rules is to be determined
So the final answer is 7364x13315x3122
which is 306117282520 @DarkVampiricAbstractArtist
And those are the natural divisors of n? Thanks :)
306,117,282,520
Why were you asking about such a large number?
03:15
Hmmm. The question asks How many natural numbers are divisors of n? But it seems that you've computed it.
Yeah, there's lots
'cause n is pretty frickin' huge
Yeah, it's pretty big, but thank you so much for the help :).
They could be arised from $f''(x)=0$ I suspect
@Secret Incidentally, Desmos lets you write $f(x)=\text{blah}$ on one line and $f(f(x))$ on another
Makes examining $f(f(x))$ easier
03:34
adding or removing $x$ is basically a sheer map on the polynomial function
nesting, however is more nontrivial since the map is nonlinear
Interestingly, their finite analogue is easy to solve by using matrices
Perhaps, a numerical way to predict how the roots of a function will vary under sheering is to grab a sequence of partitions on the x values, which at the limiting case, will converge to the continuum. Then solve the matrix equations in each case until there is enough to approximate the limiting case
04:23
woops
3. Decide which of the following statements are true. For those that are false, provide a counter-example (with a short explanation).
For those that are true, provide a proof.(a) If A and B are bounded sets such that inf(A) = inf(B) and sup(A) = sup(B), then A= B. My Attempt: I said that it's true and here's my direct proof: Since we know that InfB∈A, then InfB is the largest element in A. We denote this fact by M=InfB. By definition of B, we know that InfA∈B. Because M is the largest element in B, we must have the inequality infA≤M=InfB, as desired.
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist Why would inf(B) be the largest element in A??
The infinimum is said to be the greatest lower bound.
also let A=(0,1)-{0.5} and B = (0,1)-{0.7}. Then A=/=B but they have the same bound
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist Right, lower bound.
If the minimum exists, the infimum equals the minimum.
And I don't see how you got A=B in the end.
So then it's false?
04:31
It is.
Take A={1,2,4} and B={1,3,4}. Or really any pair of sets that have the same minimum and maximum.
Or (0,1) and [0,1].
The infimum of (0,1) (meaning the interval from 0 to 1 not including the endpoints) is 0. The supremum is 1.
The same is true of (0,1], [0,1), and [0,1].
So the supremum of [0,1] is 1 also?
If both sets A and B contain the infininum/supremum, that would mean that A=B?
The infinimum of A and B being 0. Also the supremum of A and B being 1.
No
Take {1,2,4} and {1,3,4} again
and {1,4} as well
These all have 1 as the infimum (and minimum) and 4 as the supremum (and maximum)
and they all contain the infimum and supremum
Set A and B respectively containing 2 and 3 means that A=/=B?
04:36
The point is that the contain other elements as well, in addition to the infimum and supremum. And these can be different
@DarkVampiricAbstractArtist Yes
Two sets are equal if and only if they have the same elements
If something's in A and not in B, or vise versa, then A=/=B.
Thank you @AkivaWeinberger
@AkivaWeinberger Nailed it
04:53
hmmm.... this is going nowhere....
Trying to slide from f(x) to f(x)-kx, but a path is missing
it translates to -kx, meaning the parabola moves down.
I know, I am trying to use that to track the movement and the formation/removal of the roots
That is, trying to find a way so that given you know the roots of $f(x)=0$, find where the roots of $f(x)-kx=0$ are
Try to find where the parabolas intersect and try to eliminate them from on there.
05:15
@BalarkaSen Hey, random question
So, we know how to find the area of a loop $\gamma:S^1\to\Bbb R^2$
Say that $\pi_{xy}$ is the projection of $\Bbb R^3$ onto the $xy$-plane, similarly for $\pi_{xz}$ and $\pi_{yz}$
and $\pi_P$ is the projection onto some random plane $P$
Actually nvm, roots of $f(x)$ does not necessary have anything to do with the roots of $f(x)-kx$ since $f(x)$ can have no real roots to start with, and it is impossible to predict where the roots are without full knowledge of the values of $f(x)$
Howdy @Balarka and DogAteMy
evening @ted
05:19
Hi @Semiclassic
If $\gamma$ and $\delta$ are loops in $\Bbb R^3$, and the areas of $\pi_{xy}\circ\gamma$, $\pi_{xz}\circ\gamma$, and $\pi_{yz}\circ\gamma$ equal the corresponding areas for $\delta$,
will the area of $\pi_A\circ\gamma$ equal the area of $\pi_A\circ\delta$?
$\pi_{xy}$ = projection onto the xy-plane?
and $\pi_A = \pi_P$? :)
In other words, if two loops in 3-space have the same areas after being projected to the coordinate planes, will they have the same areas after being projected to any plane?
Yes, and whoops yes
05:21
Yes, this is true
You should have kept studying my multivariable book and learned 2-forms.
Area of a planar region $A$ in $\Bbb R^3$ satisfies $A^2 = A_x^2 + A_y^2 + A_z^2$
Oh, is this explicitly done somewhere in there?
@BalarkaSen Yeah but $\gamma$ isn't planar
Where $A_x$, $A_y$, $A_z$ are the projections onto the $yz$, $xz$ and $xy$ planes
$\pi_A \circ \gamma$ is
05:22
It's just a random loop in 3-space, it doesn't need to lie in any one plane
True, @Balarka, but, even better, the area $2$-form for a random plane $P$ is a (random) linear combination of $dx\wedge dy$, $dy\wedge dz$, and $dz\wedge dx$, with the coefficients the coefficients of the unit normal, DogAteMy.
@AkivaWeinberger $\pi_A \circ \gamma$ is planar and has the same projections as $\gamma$, no?
@BalarkaSen Oh. But then we have to compare $\pi_{xy}\circ\pi_A\circ\gamma$ to $\pi_{xy}\circ\gamma$
I think they have the same areas, Akiva
Um
@BalarkaSen No, take $A$ to be a coordinate plane
05:23
Maybe there's some fuckery involved
@TedShifrin Ah. This makes sense
@TedShifrin Ah yes right
@BalarkaSen Yeah I don't think your thought works
The loops are red herrings. You're talking about surfaces.
If a surface is a map from $D^2\to\Bbb R^3$, we don't need the entire map to find the areas of the projections
We just need the boundary of the map, $\partial D^2\to\Bbb R^3$.
05:26
But I'm suggesting that's the wrong way to think about it.
Maybe you could choose an appropriate surface bounding the loop to help your computation
In any case, this came about 'cause I was thinking about generalizing the idea of the area of a loop in a plane
Area is a function that takes in a loop in $\Bbb R^2$ and outputs something in $\Bbb R$.
The generalization would take in a loop in $\Bbb R^3$ and output something in $\Bbb R^3$
namely, the triple of areas of the projections
This is very coordinate-dependent.
which is apparently enough information to get the area of call projections.
I believe what I suggested if there's some sort of convexity. The loop might have crazy projections with different signs on different pieces.
05:28
@TedShifrin Fair. I guess the codomain is just "a three-dimensional vector space", whose basis depends on your choice of basis of $\Bbb R^3$ (where the loops live).
So you need to be very careful even defining what you mean if the loop is knotted.
I can come up with a loop which projects to a circle in the xy-plane and something with zero areas when projected to the yz and xz-planes
And this is connected to $\dim(SO(2))=1$, $\dim(SO(3))=3$, I think.
What's $\dim(SO(n))$ in general?
Is it $\binom n2$?
n(n-1)/2
05:29
Nope.
I guess that would match the number of planes to project to.
@BalarkaSen -
sniped.
It also matches $\dim \bigwedge^2\Bbb R^{n*}$. :)
@TedShifrin Sure, but that's not a hard problem. $\oint ydx-xdy$, right?
But I'm still a bit troubled by what area means if the region is non-simple.
Um, with a factor of $-1/2$.
05:31
Regions where the curve winds around them with a winding number of $n$ get counted $n$ times
@TedShifrin Right
It still makes sense with my surface notion, as long as the projections are interpreted as oriented $2$-chains.
This all connects back with holonomy
That's the word, right? Parallel transport around loops?
Which is why I was thinking about it
@AkivaWeinberger How so?
05:33
If you have a loop in $S^2$, parallel transporting around it gives a rotation (i.e. an element of $SO(2)$) in the tangent plane.
And, in fact, that rotation is proportional to the area of the region that the loop surrounds.
And Stokes's Theorem computes it for you by integrating the curvature $2$-form over a region the curve bounds.
Yup, 'cuz constant curvature for the 2-sphere.
Well, it's the area times the curvature (or the area divided by the radius squared), I guess.
I have never actually done the angle computation with the holonomy
So as the radius goes to infinity, you approach the plane.
You quit reading my notes before you got to that, Balarka. That was Chapter 3.
05:35
And the area becomes an element of the tangent space of $SO(2)$.
mm I see @Ted
@BalarkaSen Well, it's additive, you can see that much
Mhm I agree
So the natural question is, what happens when we repeat this in $S^3$?
So I guess you get an element of $SO(3)$.
And, as the radius goes to infinity and whatever, and the space approaches the plane, the result becomes an element of the tangent space of $SO(3)$.
Which is a 3D vector space.
And I think that gives you the same answer as the projecting-onto-coordinate-planes construction
@TedShifrin sorry for replying to this so much later, but can you clarify this a bit? Do you mean that we can also go the other direction, i.e. associate to a representation of the fundamental group of $X$ a flat bundle $E \to X$ that induces this representation via holonomy? If yes, is this functorial?
05:39
Yup, @Mathein, you just use the standard associated bundle construction, as I recall.
$SO(3)$ isn't commutative, though, so I guess this means you get some weirdness if you stick with measuring loops in $S^3$ rather than inflating it into $\Bbb R^3$
But, yeah, this construction isn't dependent on the basis, which meant that the projection-onto-planes thing must not be dependent on the basis either, which seemed odd
@MatheinBoulomenos Say you have a representation $\rho : \pi_1 X \to GL_n(\Bbb R)$
which is why I came to the chat asking if it was true
Consider $\widetilde{X} \times \Bbb R^k/(x, v) \sim (gx, \rho(g)(v))$
This should be your flat bundle, connection coming from the flat connection on $\widetilde{X} \times \Bbb R^k$, corresponding to $\rho$
DogAteMy: You can still integrate an $\mathfrak{so}(3)$-valued $2$-form over the $2$-chain. I guess the exponential is still an element of $SO(3)$.
05:41
$\widetilde{X}$ is the universal cover, $g$ runs over all element of $\pi_1 X$
Thanks @BalarkaSen @TedShifrin
@Balarka: Probably need a $g^{-1}$ in there somewhere.
@TedShifrin Is that another way of getting the 3-vector of areas?
I hadn't thought of it, but, yeah, if you think about what $\mathfrak{so}(3)$ is.
I need to look into bundles more. We did some stuff in diff geo class, but not that much
05:43
@TedShifrin Hmm, maybe $g^{-1}$ acts on the first factor
@Mathein: Complex geometers (and topologists) make a much bigger deal out of bundles than most Riemannian geometers do.
@Balarka: One or the other, yeah.
Hey there everyone!
bundles feel like an algebraic aspect of geometry, so I guess it's not surprising that I find them interesting
I suppose there's always the left/right confusion, too.
@Daminark Hi!
05:44
@TedShifrin Yeah, ugh
@Mathein: I always taught way more with bundles in my diff geo courses.
@Daminark Hi!
Hi Demonark
Hi @Daminark
I wonder, then - is there a way to modify the same construction to give us the volume of regions in $\Bbb R^3$?
05:45
I learnt this construction during my fiddling with foliations, from Candel and Conlon
I guess we'd need some notion of "parallel transport" across a surface…
@TedShifrin I think I would've liked your diff geo course. Doing more bundles and forms (iirc) than usual sounds like an approach to diff geo I like
@AkivaWeinberger Jesus god
I know it pains you to say that, @Mathein. :)
@Daminark I had a weird thought, which is that, while the area of a loop in $\Bbb R^2$ is a number (i.e. a 1-dimensional vector), the area of a loop in $\Bbb R^3$ should be a three-dimensional vector.
05:46
@TedShifrin why would it pain me?
Maybe parallel transporting a 2-vector along a surface? I'm going to fuck outta there
@Balarka, @Mathein: I may not have mentioned this exercise before, but it's given short shrift in diff geo books. Take a symmetric space $G/H$ (like the sphere, $SO(n+1)/SO(n)$). Give its tangent bundle in terms of representation theory.
DogAteMy: Of course, the area of a loop is far from well-defined.
Hmm, symmetric spaces are topics for the second diff geo course here (which I didn't take)
Right, but this three-vector is.
The area of a loop? I've never heard of this before
05:48
That's cuz it doesn't make sense, Demonark :P
@Daminark In the plane the idea makes perfect sense
@TedShifrin Can you minimize over the area of all surfaces which bounds the loop? (Assume loop is embedded)
It's the area of the region the loop surrounds (modulo some weirdness with winding numbers if the loop intersects itself).
@Mathein: So you get a splitting $\mathfrak g = \mathfrak h \oplus \mathfrak m$, and $\mathfrak m$ is $ad(H)$-invariant.
@Balarka: Sure, there's a least-area surface bounding it (by old hard stuff). Not sure this has anything to do with what DogAteMy is doing, though.
@Daminark Say $\gamma$ is a loop in $\Bbb R^3$, and say $A_{xy}(\gamma)$ is area of the projection of $\gamma$ onto the $xy$ plane.
05:50
@TedShifrin Yeah that was an unrelated question. Very cool
How does one prove that?
That's old Douglas-Rado stuff at the beginning of minimal surface theory in the early 20th century.
Then the vector I'm considering is the vector those three values ('cause of the three coordinate planes)
Presumably Eric could lecture you on all this stuff when he's done with finals.
That would be dope
I guess $(A_{yz}(\gamma),A_{xz}(\gamma),A_{xy}(\gamma))$ @Daminark
05:51
DogAteMy: Indeed, if the projection of the loop intersects itself.
The strange thing is that this doesn't depend on the choice of basis
@TedShifrin very nice! I like that
I tolerate a certain amount of algebra, @Mathein :P
which is why I feel like it's the natural definition of "area" for loops in 3-space
(despite being a 3-vector and not a number)
@MatheinBoulomenos More topology apologist intuition: If you have a flat vector bundle $E$ over $M$ then it's horizontal subbundle (complementary to kernel of $d\pi : dE \to dM$) as defined by the connection (parallel transport lifts a path on $M$ to a path on the horizontal subbundle) is integrable
If you integrate it, you'll get a foliation on $E$ transverse to the fibers of $\pi : E \to M$
These are called foliated bundles
05:54
@Mathein: So you should be able to construct the tangent bundle of $G/H$ as an associated bundle built out of $G\times\mathfrak m$.
I don't even know what a foliation is and I forgot what an integrable submanifold is
@Mathein: I can paste in the actual exercise I wrote for my grad class if you are actually interested.
@TedShifrin yes, I asked the question so I'm interested. But I don't think I can solve it, though
Well, this is on my question, not yours. :)
But it's still on associated bundles, so it's close enough
05:57
@TedShifrin I think the tangent bundle should be a twisted $\mathfrak{g}/\mathfrak{h}$-bundle on $G/H$.
Well, I'm saying nothing new. But I mean it should come from $G \times \mathfrak{g}$ using some sort of similar identification I wrote above
Hm
Suppose $H$ is a closed Lie subgroup of $G$, and write $\mathfrak g \cong \mathfrak h\oplus\mathfrak m$ with ($[\mathfrak h,\mathfrak h]\subset \mathfrak h$ and) $[\mathfrak h,\mathfrak m]\subset \mathfrak m$. Consider the homogeneous space $M = H\backslash G$. Prove that $TM \cong G\times_{\text{Ad}(H)} \mathfrak m$.
Hints: "Recall" that if $\rho: H\to GL(V)$ is a (right) representation, we can consider
$$G\times_\rho V = \{(g,v)\in G\times V\}\big/ \big(g,v\big)\sim \big(hg,v\cdot\rho(h^{-1})\big)\,.$$
If $\pi\: G\to H\backslash G$ is the canonical map, define $\Phi\:G\times\mathfrak m \to T(H\backslash G)$ by $\Phi(g,v) = (\pi(g),\pi_*(R_{g*}v))$, and check this induces a well-defined isomorphism. (Remark: For those of you acquainted with the term, here we're thinking of $G$ as a principal bundle with fiber $H$ over $H\backslash G$.)

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