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19:05
@JoeShmo it will be the product of pullbacks since pullback of functions is composition
@EricSilva @MikeMiller Alternatively, nail it down with compactly supported Poincare duality
It's isomorphic to $H_1(\Bbb R^2 \setminus 0)$
Which is $\Bbb Z$
I'm a cheater, I know
@0celo7 um, (f . g)^* = g^* . f^*; now (f x g)^* = f^* x g^*.. how?
where . is function composition (borrowing from haskell notation)
Hello
Actually, I just had a godly vision involving the Christ and compact support. I think if $L$ is a noncompact connected $n$-manifold, $H^k_{c}(L)$ is isomorphic to exactly $H^k(L^*, \text{End}(L))$ where $\text{End}(L)$ is the space of ends of $L$ and $L^* = L \cup \text{End}(L)$ is the end-compactification
Someone know willem's book : Minimax theorem ?
19:11
No, uh Ok, no, I think my vision is correct. Lord has saveth my soul.
In this case, for example, $\Bbb R^2 \setminus \{0\}$ has two ends, and the end-compactification is $S^2$ (the end space being the north + south pole). H^1(S^2, (north and south pole)) = H^1(S^2 v S^1) = Z
@JoeShmo What?
$\phi^*(fg)=(f\circ\phi)(g\circ\phi)$
In fact, in fact, in fact. If the end is nice enough, then $H^k(L^*, \text{End}(L)) \cong H^k(L^+)$ should hold, where $L^+ = L^*/\text{End}(L)$ is the one-point compactification. Eg, if the end has a cone neighborhood.
what are you babbling about
only rick and morty people will understand
@BalarkaSen isn't rick and morty quantum mechanics, which you know nothing about?
19:24
lol are you taking the piss for not being called a rick and morty enthusiast
u just got baited son
use homeomorphism to escape
I have another MO doubt
did you figure out the previous one
My advisor and I discussed how one could do it
I have to write up the details
mmm i see
It's just formalizing that if a nonlinear op is elliptic at one point, it should be at nearby points because Iso is open in Hom
It's not clear that everything involved is continuous, however
So gotta do some work there
@BalarkaSen So right now I don't know if Kazdan-Warner trichotomy is nontrivial in dimensions not 2 or 4
19:28
gotcha
the KW classes might be empty. The best I can find is a 4-manifold that does not admit metrics of positive scalar curvature, nor a scalar flat metric
$T^4\# K_3$
or do you write it $K3$
K3 I think
even in math mode?
19:30
mhm
$K3$ or $\mathrm K3$
the former ideally
the wiki page on K3 is pretty bad
I can't tell if it's a class of manifolds in arbitrary dimensions, or what
I don't know what it looks like
just know the name
where is that german dude
Kodaira showed they are all diffeomorphic
19:46
0
Q: Examples of manifolds that do not admit scalar flat metrics

0celo7The Kazdan-Warner trichotomy states that for $n\ge 3$, a compact $n$-manifold falls into one of three categories: (A) Every (smooth) function is a scalar curvature. (B) The manifold is strongly scalar flat. (C) The manifold only admits negative scalar curvature metrics. Of course class (A) i...

what's a zero dimensional subscheme of $\mathbb{P^n(k)}$?
@mago Are you asking for an example or a definition? A finite number of points constitutes an example, say
initially, a definition would be helpful
@MatheinBoulomenos would be able to explain what a scheme is better than me.
my thesiis advisor gave me some lecture from Geramita about Waring's problem (and in the introductory part is all about zero schemes), and I honestly do understand anything ahahaha
thanks anyway @BalarkaSen
19:54
@mago Read this post by lush: chat.stackexchange.com/transcript/message/43058565#43058565 an affine scheme $\operatorname{Spec} A$ is a geometric object that contains the information about a commutative ring $A$. A general scheme is a geometric object that looks locally like an affine scheme (similar to how a manifold looks locally like an open subset of $\Bbb R^n$).
Here the notions "geometric object" and "looks like" are made precise by considering a topological space with algebraic data attached to open subsets
Henlo
@0celo7 in math.cornell.edu/~sjamaar/manifolds/manifold.pdf in exercise (4.9) (ii), i don't understand what to do with the product of rho and c, also since rho is a closed path, can we assume the winding number of rho is finite? or else presumably something should cancel out
You have morphisms of schemes which are compatible with the topology and the algebraic data in a certain way. If you have a morphism of schemes $X \hookrightarrow Y$ that is an embedding onto a closed subset on the topological level, then one calls $X$ a closed subscheme. A closed subscheme is not uniquely determined by specifying a closed subset! For an affine scheme, closed subschemes correspond to ideals, whereas closed subsets correspond to radical ideals
Hey, quick question. Let's say there are x number of ways (combinations) to add up 1 penny and 5 penny coins to make 1$. Now, the question is - how many combinations are there to make 2$ out of 1 penny and 5 penny coins? Would you have to re-run the entire calcuation, or would the knowledge of the first question help to answer this? (E.g. if there are XYZ ways to make 1$, then there must be ... different ways to make 2$)
@mago It's unlikely that you can grasp this just from a short explanation wirtten in a chat tbh
@Daminark Henlo
20:03
@MatheinBoulomenos totally agree, I'll reutrn asking question after spending some time trying tiio understand this stuff
anyway thanks for the link and the intuitive answer
20:47
Heya @Semiclassical
21:45
@BalarkaSen Bah, only garbage answers to my MO question
They gave me more criteria, but how the fuck am I to know which manifolds have which invariants
@JoeShmo do you have a more precise question?
what did you try?
tyring as we speak
let me get back to you in a couple hours. i'm on the brink of a breakthrough (famous last words)
i think for (ii) the winding number is still k, and the relevant discussion in the text is EXAMPLE 4.2., or THEOREM 4.3.
(please do let me know if you think im totally wrong :) )
I haven't thought about it but $k$ makes sense
$k$ doesn't make sense. $s$ makes sense. Well, two of them, as well as two $e$s and an $n$.
22:27
@0celo7 i dont know what to do with the multiplication by rho. I want to reinterpret it as composition, but that doesn't help me
How are you, @skullpatrol ?
Fine, thanks @anakhronizein how are you?
Not too bad.
22:57
Hi @BalarkaSen
\o @BalarkaSen
If two polynomials in $\mathbb{R}[x,y]$ agree on the $x-$axis and on the $y-$axis, need they be the same?
If anyone here wants to check the math in the following article, I would appreciate. Let me know if there are any mistakes.
In computational geometry, Chan's algorithm, named after Timothy M. Chan, is an optimal output-sensitive algorithm to compute the convex hull of a set P {\displaystyle P} of n {\displaystyle n} points, in 2- or 3-dimensional space. The algorithm takes O ( n log ⁡ h ) {\displaystyle O(n\log h)} time, where h {\displaystyle h} is the number of vertices of the output (the convex hull...
@Prototank f(x) = x^2 and f(x) = -x^2 agree on the x and y axes.
Or what do you mean by "agree on the x axis"?
Same intersections?
If two polynomials in two variables agree on all pairs $(x,y)$ where one of $x$ or $y$ is zero, are they the same?
Union the axes
23:06
@Prototank: You can easily make up a counterexample.
sure, just toss in $xy$ terms into one and not the other....
Hi @anakhronizein! I saw your overleaf page. I'll check it out soon
Right, or more generally, terms with $x^jy^k$, $j,k>0$.
Hi Balarka
Hey Ted
Full disclosure, I'm looking for an algebraic map between algebraic subsets $X\to Y$ that is an epimorphism but not a surjection. My first guess was to include the coordinate axes into the plane, but this doesn't work
23:10
I don't think categorically enough to distinguish between epic and surjective.
I should finish Taylor expanding the Riemannian metric upto second order in geodesic coordinates someday
> that feeling when Ted isn't a category theorist
> that feeling when geometry hasn't been approached properly
Demonark: If you're so smart, explain the difference to me in the category of algebraic subsets (of affine space or projective space).
Wait I never said I was smart
23:12
Why is geometry one of the worst subjects to read sometimes. :(
because you don't "read" it, you "absorb" it :P
@TedShifrin I do think epimorphisms in the category of affine k-algebras are more complicated than cokernel zero maps
"geometry" is awfully vague and vast.
Maybe I should say monomorphism because I dualized
And kernel zero thereof
whats a map of affine subsets?
is that like a map of affine varieties?
23:15
I would have thought a backwards map on coordinate rings
regular map
Same as what Ted said
But I don't understand epic in any category but sets, I suppose.
Me neither.
@TedShifrin is there a formula for a pullback of a product of two functions? i.e., (f x g)* = ...?
Hi @JoeShmo. Give me more context.
23:16
How's the neck Professor?
Domain? Range?
question (4.9) (ii) in http://www.math.cornell.edu/~sjamaar/manifolds/manifold.pdf

:)
Still messed up, skull, but the physical therapy is helping.
hey are you ok?
I wouldn't call that a product mapping. Very misleading.
Just degenerating disks and vertebrae.
23:18
f: [0, 1] -> R^2, g: [0, 1] -> (0, infinity)
oh man. sounds painful. how are you doing?
When you say product mapping I think mapping from product of manifolds to product of manifolds.
no no no. im not that smart
My suggestion for questions like that is to start by drawing pictures.
I think any open immersion will do.
i have an intuitive understanding of what's going on. rho scales the path t in an orientation-preserving fashion.
rho != 0, which is good.
23:19
Bullshit
xy = 0
project
ok
Yes, that seems right
but how do i rigorously show that the winding number of ~c = k, still?
@JoeShmo: So if you deform a curve without crossing the origin, what happens to the winding number?
nothing
the winding number remains the same
I would suggest doing (iii) before (ii). You're defining winding number by pulling back $d\theta$ and integrating?
By xy = 0 I meant xy = 1. Sigh.
23:21
he's referring to some formula (as in, "...by using the formula") and i strongly suspect he's referring to theorem 4.2
my intuition is that unique continuation should imply that the inclusion of any affine open will behave categorically like a surjection.
I mean like xy\ne 0
included into A^2 for instance
@BalarkaSen What do you mean here?
winding number of a path c about the origin = w(c, 0) = integral along c of (alpha_0) where alpha_0 = (-ydx + xdy)/(x^2+y^2)
@PVAL-inactive That's not an affine varieties, that's a quasi-affine thing. I am thinking of the hyperbola xy = 1 projected to the x-axis
The image is x-axis minus the origin
hi @TedShifrin
23:22
I didn't look, @JoeShmo. OK, so what happens to that form if you scale vectors by a factor $\rho$?
So the map is k[x] included in k[x, y]/(xy - 1). Maybe some algebraist can tell us if that's an EPIC MORPHISM :boom:
hi everyone
hi Karim
Have you paged @Mathein? @Balarka
the complement of a hypersurface should be affine..
No, that's not what an affine variety means. You're describing a quasi-affine variety
23:23
xy\ne 1
should work then
it isn't affine as a subset of A^2
It can be realized as image of a map from an affine variety if you mean that
Those are precisely what quasi-affine varieties are, actually
@TedShifrin Good point. @MatheinBoulomenos, come to the rescue
Okay this makes sense
Is k[x] --> k[x, y]/(xy - 1) a monomorphism?
@TedShifrin i dont know. there's funny business going on with the pullbacks
@TedShifrin can I ask quick question in complex analysis ?
23:25
Forgot to dualize.
No, no funny business, @JoeShmo.
Okay, thanks for the example
Write down the pullback by $c(t)$ explicitly, and then write down the pullback by $\rho(t)c(t)$ explicitly. First think through what happens when $\rho$ is constant.
xy\ne 1 has coordinate ring K[x,y,z]/((xy-1)z=1)
What's the question, Karim?
23:27
@TedShifrin i tried that. let me try again
or in other words its the localization of xy-1 in K[x,y]
this is clearly affine
@JoeShmo: Honestly, (iii) is telling you what's going on geometrically. Projecting the curve to the unit circle gives the same $1$-form when you pull back.
yes, right, i get that
@TedShifrin I was wondering if there is some kinda of generalization of Great Picard Theorem to complex manifolds ?
but the question is asking to use "the formula" (although it doesn't specify what "the formula" is)
23:28
Hyperbolic complex manifolds is all about that, Karim. There are various books on this.
oh very cool.
The formula has to be $d\theta$, which is the $1$-form you wrote down, @JoeShmo.
the immersion is the obvious map K[x,y] to its localization.
True I see what you mean now
So the locus of $xy-1$, sent to the x-axis is an algebraic map
23:30
Yes, @Prototank
but any two functions which agree on everything, except zero, must be the same
Quite. Sorta a density argument but not quite.
polynomials*
anyway I am going to work
cya @TedShifrin
@TedShifrin ok. let me write down the explicit formula of the pullback by c and rho
23:31
Thanks @BalarkaSen and @PVAL-inactive
@TedShifrin Btw The other day I was teaching the class about differential forms in my vector calculus
I guess its easier to do this a dimension down
You shouldn't do that, Karim. I already warned you about that.
I had few minutes on my time I thought it would be nice to give students some idea about them
@TedShifrin meaning, i know what the winding numbers are, and i can prove what they are in each case, but i can't compute them explicitly, which is alarming to me anyway.
23:32
A^1 minus the origin has coordinate ring C[x,y]/xy=1
Localization of C[x] at (x) again isn't it
@JoeShmo: It's almost impossible to compute explicitly.
but they're asking me to compute
Unless you wind around the circle a certain number of times. But maps are homotopic to such things.
and the map C[x] to C[x,y]/xy=1 is an open immersion.
23:33
No, they're asking you to find the pullback and see its integral is no different. They're not asking you to compute the integral.
Determine the
winding numbers of the following paths c˜: [0, 1] → R
2
\ {0} by using the formula, and then
explain the answer by appealing to geometric intuition
yes yes. that's what i mean
Given that one integral comes out $k$, you can tell the other one does also, without doing any explicit integration.
brb to work.
@Daminark this is what happens when real men do real math for too long. they start calling maps between commutative rings open immersions
23:34
my idea of a computation
(I hope you don't mind the memes @PVAL)
open immersion is a term i got from Hartshorne
Oh really
@Balarka: I see no evidence of "real men" in this chatroom.
@TedShifrin Except the 16-18 year old real men who infest it, you mean?
23:36
@BalarkaSen such is life
No comment @Balarka
LOL @Ted
since the ring map is an injection and injections for rings are automatically monomorphisms it easily follows that this map is an epimorphism.
AM A MAN ! AM AN ANCHORMAN , I ANCHOR THE NEWS
what movie ?
is that quote from ?
ANCHORMAN
BOOM
23:36
haha
@PVAL: That's what started this whole thing. I don't know the difference between monic/injective and epic/surjective in the category of rings as opposed to the category of sets.
damn, now Kasmir is sounding as bothersome as Demonark and Balarka.
@PVAL Wait, monomorphism or epimorphism?
the map on rings is a monomorphisms
Ted! one time i had to make a quote from movie
dont put me in that category :D
so the reversed category map will be an epimorphism
23:38
OK great
@Ted So the map on affine varieties need not be surjective
to be an epimorphism
There's your difference
So what is the definition of epic?
But the map you guys came up with is awfully darn close to a surjection
gf=gh \implies f=h
aka right-cancellative
@Prototank Yeah I'd want to know if all epimorphisms arise this way
if the category is concrete surjection implies epic, obviously
23:40
As open immersions
but the converse doesn't hold always
Only @Mathein can't tell that
PVAL is confuzling me.
whoops
i did it backwards
I see. Thanks.
I guess I'm not sure I ever grokked this when I took 5 quarters of Hartshorne. I must have.
23:41
YAS YAS YAS Dragon Ball Super's next mega episode is about to air in 20 minutes!!
and hi chat
I think this should morally be unique continutation of holomorphic functions on an open set.
holomorphic functions care about morals?
holomorphic functions don't have hollow morality
2
ba dum tss
Let $\epsilon>0$ and $x>0$. Then what is the even extension of $\delta_{\epsilon}(x)$ on the whole of $\mathbb{R}$, in the limit as $\epsilon \to 0$?
hollow morphality, Balarka
@Lozansky: Was that question supposed to make sense to us?
23:45
@TedShifrin :(
Does the term "even extension" not make sense?
It is a direct translation from my language
@TedShifrin for reference, my above comment was intended is a joke, but if the jokes are actually that annoying I can stop
Demonark: When almost everything coming out of your "mouth" is de facto a joke, it's gotten too annoying. I'm happy to discuss actual mathematics.
@Lozansky: What is $\delta_\epsilon(x)$?
Alright, I'll keep that in mind
@TedShifrin Dirac-delta distribution centered at $\epsilon$
But this is, of course, not an actual function, unless you're doing an approximate one.
But the usual ways of thinking about it give something on all of $\Bbb R$ that is even with respect to $x=\epsilon$.
23:48
Hello
No, still a distribution
@TedShifrin As the hip kids alternatively say nowadays instead of "Indeed": "Holomorphic, my dude".
So do Carmo (book) has been trying to teach me about connections and I think I sorta get them now
Reference:
@Akiva Huzzah
Also I get why $\nabla_XY-\nabla_YX=[X,Y]$ is a reasonable assumption
23:49
Do you now
@Daminark I suffer the same fate as you, especially because I specialize in stochastic stuff, and most discussions here are never relating to that topic
So distributions only operate on compactly supported smooth functions, @Lozansky. So what do you mean by "extend to all of $\Bbb R$"?
heya DogAteMy
@The What fate? Daminark actively engages in a lot of conversations, mathematical or non-mathematical, in this chat.
It would be like $f^+(x) = \cases{\delta(x-\epsilon), & x>0 \\ \delta(\epsilon-x), & x<0}$
But they are the same, $\delta$ is even
But a distribution is NOT a function, @Lozansky. It operates on functions.
You can't write stuff like that.
23:51
@BalarkaSen well, my bad, I extrapolated too much from Ted's comment
@Akiva Oh god
DogAteMy has been totally memefied.
We're all influenced by Daminark
I welcome it
I linked to a Google image search
23:52
I don't.
@TedShifrin Sorry I am informal. We could say $\delta^+_{\epsilon} = \delta_{\epsilon}+\delta_{-\epsilon}$ maybe?
@Lozansky: So you mean even NOT with regard to $\epsilon$ but with regard to $0$?
Then we get $\delta^+ = 2\delta$ as $\epsilon \to 0$. Good result?
Well, $\epsilon \to 0$
I still don't know what even means for a distribution.
Is there subtle difference?
23:53
(I mean, I do, but you haven't said it.)
@BalarkaSen
lol
Oh jesus christ
That Morrisey image is killing me
Who is that
23:54
@BalarkaSen In my talk which is next month I was gonna mention how things in complex analysis the genetic code of holomorphic function is determined at very small level
hahaha
Morrissey, the lead singer in Smiths
new phone, who dat
@TedShifrin We have only talked about even/odd extensions for functions (not distributions), but we often treat $\delta$ like a function
Are those lyrics
@AkivaWeinberger Well, I'm still fond of you.
23:55
@Lozansky: Well, it's not.
I know
So think about what "even" should mean.
@Alex LMAO
Actually, they are lyrics. :)
Damn
I'll take that as a "yes", despite the image saying the opposite
23:56
Even the 'meat is murder'?
Very much
It's their second studio album iirc
sniped
Not sure if I should or shouldn't listen to this
Smiths have some interesting songs but Morrissey is a dick
A very well known one at that
23:58
@TedShifrin I only know of the definition $U_f[\varphi] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} f(x) \varphi(x) dx$ for distribution $U$ that can be represented by locally integrable function $f$ and $\varphi \in \mathcal{D}$
But the delta distribution isn't represented by an $L^1_{\text{loc}}$ function.
True
But still it makes sense
To define $\delta[\varphi] = \int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \delta(x) \varphi(x) dx$
@Lozansky: I'm suggesting that you try to define evenness by applying to test functions $f$ and $g=f\circ -$.
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