Remember the construction of covering space of $(X, x_0)$ (a path connected, locally path connected, semilocally simply connected based space) from a subgroup $G \subset \pi_1(X, x_0)$?
Well, yes, you look at space of homotopy classes of paths starting at $x_0$ which are $G$-equivariant.
So you construct the universal cover as $\widetilde{X} = \{[\gamma] : \gamma \in X^I, \gamma(0) = x_0\}$, and give it the topology generated by the basis $\mathcal{U}([\gamma], U)$ which consists of paths of the form $\gamma * \eta$ where $\eta$ is a path with $\eta(0) = \gamma(1)$ and stays inside an open set $U$ around $\gamma(1)$.
Under this topology, the projection map $p : \widetilde{X} \to X$ given by $p([\gamma]) = \gamma(1)$ turns out to be a covering map.
And you can prove $\widetilde{X}$ is simply connected: the space is full of noodles starting at $x_0$. Slurp the noodles to contract the space to $x_0$
Well think about the $G$-action on $\widetilde{X}$ given by composing (homotopy class of) a path with a loop at $x_0$, and then quotient out by it to get the cover of $X$ corresponding to the subgroup $G \leq \pi_1$
I have been thinking about this construction and it vaguely reminds me of the pathspace fibration
Which is the following thing. Suppose $X$ is a (sufficiently nice, just assume CW complex) space, then denote $P(X, x_0)$ to be the space of paths starting at $x_0$ (no homotopy modding here), inheriting the compact-open topology from $X^I$.
Then there is a projection map $P(X, x_0) \to X$ given by sending a path $\gamma$ starting at $x_0$ to $\gamma(1)$.
But yeah for example the square (with it's interior) is a manifold with corners: the corner points are locally diffeomorphic to $\Bbb H^1 \times \Bbb H^1$
Let $X_{2n}$ be the group whose presentation is$\langle x,y\,|\,x^n=y^2=1, xy=yx^2\rangle$. From $x=xy^2$, it is seen that $x^3=1$, hence $X_{2n}$ has at most $6$ elements. I have to show that if $n=3k$, then $X_{2n}$ has exactly $6$ elements. I can't see where I am having problem if I assume $x=1$.
$A=\sum\limits_{p,q\in\mathbb N^*}\dfrac{1}{p^2q^2}-E \implies (1+(\zeta(4)-1))A = \zeta(2)^2 \implies \frac{\pi^4}{90} A = \frac{\pi^4}{36} \implies A = \frac{5}{2}$
I wonder what does this looks like geometrically...
3B1B showed that $\zeta(2)$ is 4/3 times the total flux received at the origin of a straight line (infinite limit of a circle) with sources at every odd integer. I wonder if similar result also holds for a straight line in $L^4$ so we can reason the same way with $\zeta(4)$
@LeakyNun That sounds pretty tedious and uninteresting, cause it is basically applying induction to the use of inverse pythagorus theorem that split the light houses
but he had proved the inverse pythagorus theorem algebraically isn't he in the video, and e.g. for the 8 lighthouses cases, he is applying that 8 times and then showing how the angles are identical?
If $K[X]$ is a polynomial ring over a field and the quotient $K[X]/(m(X))$ by the minimal polynomial $m(X)$ of some $\alpha$ gives you a $K$-vector space, does the same construction with $K$ replaced by some ring $R$ give you a free $R$-module?
Blind contour drawing is a drawing exercise, where an artist draws the contour of a subject without looking at the paper. The artistic technique was introduced by Kimon Nicolaïdes in The Natural Way to Draw, and it is further popularized by Betty Edwards as "pure contour drawing" in The New Drawing on the Right Side of the Brain.
== Technique ==
The student fixes their eyes on the outline of the model or object, then tracks the edge of the object with his or her eyes, while simultaneously drawing the contour very slowly, in a steady, continuous line without lifting the pencil or looking at the...
Let $T_r$ and $S_r$ be the rth term and sum up to the rth term of a series. If for an odd number n. $S_n= n$ and $T_n= \dfrac{T_{n-1}}{n^2}$, then $T_m$ ($m$ being even) is?
$S_{n+2}= n+2$
$S_n= n$
$S_{n+2}- S_n = 2$
Thus every number at even positions is 2.
Can someone please tell me whats wrong with my method?
(Answer is in terms of $m$, I don't get why the answer is just not $2$)
Let $T_r$ and $S_r$ be the rth term and sum up to the rth term of a series. If for an odd number n. $S_n= n$ and $T_n= \dfrac{T_{n-1}}{n^2}$, then $T_m$ ($m$ being even) is?
https://chemistry.stackexchange.com/questions/15620/what-is-bents-rule I found it amazing that there are so many rules that I don't know even exist. UNSW must be really good at explaining most things using MO theory...
Hey People. Computer Engineer here. I have spent about two weeks trying to understand the results of this paper (free access).
I am not able to verify the result in chapter 7 (example deconvolution). If I take the computed X and convolve with the given A, I don't get the expected B. Could someone help me understand?
The problem of notation is its rigidity. It helps to achieve rigor and conciseness when presenting formulas or concepts, but, if ambiguous or incorrect, it can be more painful than a discursive explanation of the formula.
Well, what I remember is F is much stronger to the order of similar to O and N, and Cl is the 4th guy the follows that but a bit weaker (not rmb how much weaker, but Br and I has negligible H bonding
There are 3 major effects at play here: 1. The mesomeric effect/resonance effect (M/R) [e- shifts due to p orbital overlap] 2. The inductive effect (I) [e- shift due to electronegativity] 3. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
There orderings, are respectively: 1. F > Cl > Br > I 2. F > Cl > Br > I 3. F >> Cl >(>?) Br >(>>) I
So the overall acidity is the relative strengths of these factors. Now:
Using the diagram up there (which is basically I am so lazy thus I smush the resonance diagrams altogether by using the deltas), we can see that I effect and M effect competes with each other. Therefore, a molecule is less acidic if:
(+M effect) + (H bonding) > (I effect)
Now let's start with F:
uh sorry, I brainfarted
2
let me try again
For F:
F has strong I, M and H. Since it is the least acidic, we thus conclude that M+H > I, but we don't have enough information to say how is I vs M, thus it is possible that for F, M > I, that you will need further check to know
Cl has strong I and M, but H is a lot weaker, thus it is a bit more acidic
Br has weak I and M, and negligible H, thus it is more acidic than Cl. Same applies for I
Now since I of Br > I, we have that Br is more acidic than I
@Abcd While you find I > M for all halogens, the fact that F is most acidic just show relative to the Cl case, how big the contribution of the H bonding is
and so, Soumik Das answer is a more detailed version of mine and is ok
> To make this straight: There are no hyperbonds in (XCl3)2;X={B,Al}; this includes three-centre-two-electron bonds, and three-centre-four-electron bonds. And deeper insight to those will be offered on another day.
This is different from what I am being taught in my undergrad
Martin's an excellent work on the analysis, but it is clearly too high level since the description involve quantum effects and it really does not explain why the angle is so other than stronger back bonding of the boron monomer. Now to check Ron's answer
@abcd I see there were two links, the first one is the one I meant. Here is the important bit for your question: "So after all we have two kinds of bonds in the dimers four terminal X−Cl and four bridging X−μCl bonds. Therefore the most accurate description is with formal charges (also the simplest)." So, if it is correct to describe the dimer with formal charges, then the deviation in bond angles is in perfect compliance with Bent's rule. — Stian YttervikOct 17 '17 at 15:49
@Abcd Ah I see it now. Ron's answer explain how Bent's rule works. Meanwhile Martin's calculations have shown that the Al2Cl6 (in the gas phase) bonding is basically described by formal charge, and how ionic it is, which means we expect Al to be quite positive. Since the Cl-Al-Cl angle is much smaller than tetrahedral, it agrees with the bents rule prediction. James Gaidis's answer address the issue of Al2Cl6 in the solid phase
So the short answer is, yes you can apply bents rule, but the long answer will need to unite Martin's, Ron's and Jame's answer into one
@Tanuj without further info, not really, cause the pulley like answer that is given will mean the banana had to move down as the monkey climb up, and I cannot figure out any real life setting of a pulley system where two heavy objects can be on one side and the rope not fasten to some support such as the branch without slipping off
I am really struggling to get this question across. I am hoping someone can help me make it more formal. Basically, when dealing with co and contravariant vector components under a certain basis for several co and contravariant vectors, its clear that any function of quantities of the form $v_iw^i$ where $v_i$ are components of a covariant vector and $w^i$ are the components of a contravariant vector is invariant under a change of basis (invoking Einstein summation convention here).
My question is, is the converse true? That is, is any invariant function of vector coordinates under a certain basis a function of quantities of the above form?
This is my attempt at formalizing it, but it feels weird and overly complicated, gyazo.com/1f8a86469d2431c3cdaaef831f0f83bd and the "product of all possible projection maps" is vague.
For $a,b,c\in \mathbb R $ and $f :[0, 2\pi ] \to \mathbb R$ defined with:
$f(x)=a\sin(x)^2+2b\sin(x)\cos(x)+c\cos(x)^2.$ Find $\max(f), x\in [0,2\pi]$.
Can somebody help me remember the specifics of this decomposition of a vector using the inner product: $v=\sum_i (v,v_i)e_i$, does the basis have to be orthonormal or not?
Let $G$ the free group on $n$ generators, and let $\Bbb{C}G$ denote the complex free group ring (which is the same the group algebra, since $G$ is a discrete group). Endow $\Bbb{C}G$ with the finest locally convex topology. Is much known about such a topology on $\Bbb{C}G$; are there any study re...