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03:02
$\int_1^y \frac{1}{x} = \ln y$, want $\ln y \leq 1 \implies y \leq e$
Okay: there are 720 permutations of the numbers 1--6. I have a transformation on permutations that partitions those 720 into twelve 60-member equivalence classes.
I have another transformation that can take a permutation from one class into a permutation from another.
I'm trying to put together (a) sequence(s) of those transformations that will traverse all 720 permutations without repeat.
But I'm at a loss for notation. Anyone have any brilliant ideas?
720 / 6 = 120, not 60. am I wrong?
You're not wrong. [hurriedly edits...]
anyways, how does your second transformation work? does orbit of every permutation consist of exactly 12 permutations from different classes?
It's not a huge problem for the 1--6 case, but it is a huge problem, literally, when I need to work on the 1--8, 1--9, 1--10 cases =)
Second transformation, unfortunately, is only applicable to one-fifth of the permutations. I.e. if one started to use T_1 to walk around class_1 there are only twelve members on which T_2 is a valid operation.
03:15
lol
(yeah, I'm not so good at division tonight =\ )
This feels like s geometric group theory problem
Cayley graphs and such
@Semiclassical Yes. I'm told Cayley diagrams... [sniped]
Hah. Not that I have anything intelligent to say about them
what will happen if I try to use T_2 twice (or even more) on a permutation? assuming I can apply T_2 to it on the first time.
03:19
what does it mean for a transformation on a set (in this case the set of permutations) to partition it?
@anon well you take orbits of elements and get a partition
elements of what?
@mike239x T_2(T_2(x))=x, if that's what you're asking?
@anon of the set
@nitsua60 yeah, something like that
03:21
@Ted so it turns out what I said was true and it shouldn't have taken me this long to see it
of the set of permutations? but the set of permutations acts transitively on {1,..,6}, so it induces a trivial partition on {1,..,6}, not a partition of {720 permutations} into 12 parts
With generators being (1,2) and (1,2,3,4,5,6)
See, $(T-aI)^2$ is a positive operator (obviously symmetric since $T$ is, and $\langle (T-aI)^2x,x\rangle = \|(T-aI)x\|^2$)
So T_2 doesn't nicely create an easy path. T_2 may take element 12 of class_1 to an element of class_2, but might take element 24 of class_1 to an element of class_8, for instance.
So its spectrum lies in $[0,\infty)$. Meaning, it excludes $-b^2$
03:22
@Semiclassical I do not have that second generator available to me.
(no element within the permutation is displaced more than one place from its previous position by either T_1 or T_2)
Thus, $(T-aI)^2 - (-b^2)I = (T-aI)^2 + b^2I$ is invertible. So we're good
This is the context, if anyone cares: en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Campanology#Method_ringing
@anon OP has a single action T_1 which acts on S6 (permutation set), partitioning it.
@mike239x so the partitions are the cycles of T_1, i.e. the orbits of the cyclic subgroup <T_1> within Perm(S_6)?
@anon Yes.
03:26
If you can’t generate the permutation (123456) by some method then I’m perplexed what you’re hoping for
If you want <T1,T2> to act transitively on S_6 then you need <T_2> to act transitively on S_6/~
@Semiclassical Sorry--lemme check I'm reading that right. Is that an identity you're writing there, or a cyclic permutation of all six elements?
I assume the cycles of T1 are a block system for <T2>
Cyclic permutation
@anon "block system"?
03:28
@nitsua60 if X is a cycle of T1, then so is T2(X)
@Semiclassical Then, yes, I can't have that. It requires one of the members to "jump" five places within the order, which is physically unmanageable.
so if x,y are in the same cycle of T1, then T2(x),T2(y) cannot be in different cycles
I see what you're saying. It makes me fear I've described something imprecisely/incorrectly.
Let me present a few things I've worked out by hand:
I can take any (starting) permutation and generate an orbit of length 60, using T_1 repeatedly.
hmm.... how to find a real interval $S$ such that any finite sum of the elements in the interval are bounded above by $1$ but the countable sum of the elements in the interval are exactly 1?
I can, at selected points in an orbit, execute T_2 and generate an orbit of length 120.
I can also, at selected points, execute T_2 and generate an orbit of length 360.
03:35
What exactly is T1, T2 here?
In real-world terms?
maps from S6 to S6, it seems
In terms of permutations
(gimme a sec)
that is, how to find $(a,b)$ (where the ends can be open or closed) such that for any $c_i \in (a,b)$, $\sum_{i=0}^n c_i \leq 1$ for all $n \in \Bbb{N}$ and for any $c_i \in (a,b)$, $\sum_{i=0}^{\infty}c_i =1$?
03:37
@secret as stated such an interval doesn't exist
@Semiclassical To make sure I've got the notation right (because permutation groups were, like, 20 years ago): (12)(34)(56) would indicate that three neighbor-pairs swap positions, right? And (123) would indicate the first three elements permute cyclically while elements 4-6 do nothing?
@Secret How do you have a countable number of elements in a real interval?
@nitsua60 that's right
okay--one sec then [scribbles furiously]
@nitsua60 every real interval which a=/=b has uncountably many elements
@mike239x uh, I think I missed that bit of the conversation?
@Secret not really, I just skipped the thinking part and told you only the conclusion, my bad
03:42
@Semiclassical T_1 = 5*{5*[(12)(34)(56),(23)(45)],(34)(56),(23)(45)}
T_2 is the choice to replace one of the (34)(56) permutations with (23)(56).
Here's a visualization of T_1:
(Ignore the last non-faded row--it's there to show one that the orbit's complete.)
@anon Think of it, if you have a point x which is not 0 inside the interval, you can take sequence made of x only, and its sum will diverge. So the only possible value in the interval is 0. But this way you will not get sum over infinite sequence equal 1. Hence no such interval exists.
right, make sense
Demonark @Daminark: Oh, the point is that, a posteriori, if $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue, then it's real, so $b=0$. You assumed $b\ne 0$, so, yes, of course it's right.
I am terrible at working with infinite sums intuitively, they are much harder to visualise than integrals
They're blocky integrals.
03:51
That question by kanderson8 drove me thinking, on the more general scenario of the criteria for a finite and infinite sum to be bounded above by some fixed value
Yeah
if the set is positive the inductively defined sup series I described earlier being less than that value is a complete characterization.
But yeah once I figured it out I was kinda annoyed because it probably took me just half an hour to an hour to realize that we'd be done if we knew $(T-aI)^2 + b^2I$ was invertible, and then it took me over an hour to realize that changing "+" to "--" did it
yeah, never thought of using sup to constrain the sum of areas of each of those rectangles
I think when I first thought about this
04:00
@TedShifrin you talk about piecewise smoothness in lecture 33, green's theorem
I was wondering why we do not allow some sort of uncountable subadditivity in the measure axioms.
Well, Alessandro, Leaky and I have explored that topic briefly, and our conclusion is that uncountable subadditivity screw up translational invariance of lebegue measure
or at least what happens when you try and include that axiom.
well I think for the Lebesgue measure it implies everything is zero
Yeah it would
but i think if you consider point valued measures on R
i.e where singletons can have nonzero values
the solution to this exercise should imply that all uncountably infinite sets have infinite measure.
say each singleton has a nonzero value
for instance
is what I mean.
04:07
Yeah, that will effects my be summing uncountably many nonzero things, which is going to blow up
(And stupid autocorrect)
I think an uncountable sum of positive terms is necessarily infinite, right?
yeah thats essentially what this exercise shows
Oh lol I didn't notice the exercise, sorry :P
that when you take the sup over finite sums of distinct positive reals of an uncountable sum you get infinity.
I need to check again the transcript to be sure, but I recall leaky came up with a weird measure that is not translational invariant which can sum uncountable things
04:10
the measure question is a little different than that (different points can have the same measure), but its easy to prove from that.
Secret, you may like this exercise actually
Show that there is no finitely additive translation-invariant measure on $\ell^2$ for which the measure of every ball is positive and finite
Sister exercise: show that there's no finitely additive measure on $\ell^{\infty}$ for which the measure of every ball is positive and finite (here I do not assume even translation invariance)
Sounds like something using the non-compactness of the closed unit ball.
Dec 5 '17 at 9:28, by Leaky Nun
@Secret for example here's an uncountably subadditive measure: enumerate the rationals $f:\Bbb N \to \Bbb Q$. Define $\mu(A) = \displaystyle \sum_{n=0}^\infty \begin{cases} 2^{-n} & f(n) \in A \\ 0 & f(n) \notin A \end{cases}$
Daminark: thonking (currently on mobile)
maybe what I said about uncountable subadditivity is nonsense.
I think the thing I was thinking about was measures with nonzero values on singletons.
I think leaky might have cheated a bit, the measure is defined on a countable support
Since only the rational entries have positive value
04:20
yeah for uncountable set of real numbers, the sup of finite sums is infinite.
so necessairly you can't have uncountable disjoint sets with nonzero measure.
note in such a collection, there is a finite number of sets with \mu=c for c any positive real (or else adding all those together produces something infinite), so it reduces to the exercise that was given,
04:39
@PVAL-inactive hmm... this is not very obvious to me. For example I cannot see how finite sums where elements are taken from $[1,2]$ will diverge?
you let the number of things being summed be really large.
n things summed together in [1,2] is at least n
Ah I see
of course this isn't completely obvious when it isn't bounded below.
e.g. 1+1.1+1.11+1.111+...+1.11...1 is definitely going to be more or less n
like for [0,1] obviously i can take .9+.99+.999 ... or whatever
but for general uncountable sets the point is the solution to the original question.
04:44
I wonder if it is not just uncountable sets, but dense sets in the reals that tries to sum all its elements. For example, I will expect a finite sum over $[0,1] \cap \Bbb{Q}$ will become unbounded as $n\to \infty$
as one obvious candidate is the harmonic series and then of course the .9,.99,.999... etc.
So I am guessing if a measure is such that there are countably many singletons being assigned positive value and these form a dense set, then a blow up might still occurs
and such measure will think that all sets that contains said dense set will be of full measure
density shouldn't matter
There's nothing about the geometry of the euclidean line being used
the values being summed are actually the point measures not the points themselves
you can take any positive convergent sequence and some enumeration of the rationals and assign the rationals the terms in that sequence and that will be all well and good.
05:34
Where in the proof of Legendre's formula do we use the fact that $p$ is prime?
I mean, if $c$ is a composite positive number, can we use the same formula to determine highest power dividing $n!$?
05:59
Yo Mathein!
06:13
test $\lhd, \unlhd$
06:37
Hmm... it is a theorem that if $\phi$ is a group homomorphism with domain $G$ then $\phi(G)$ is isomorphic to $G/\text{Ker}(\phi)$. But Pinter instead specifies $\phi$ surjective (a group epimorphism), not sure why
Pinter defines a group $H$ as a "homomorphic image" of $G$ if there exists a surjective homomorphism $\phi:G\to H$, but this onto criterion is not mentioned in other sources. So he's consistently given to this surjectivity thing and I'm confused why even
For a finite group $G$, for some nonempty subset $H$ of $G$, if we have $a,b \in H \Rightarrow ab \in H$, doesn't that imply $H$ is a subgroup of $G$ ?
@AlexKChen Yes
So for infinite group $G$, we change the condition $ab \in H$ to $ab^{-1} \in H$ ?
Are there an example of a infinte group $G$ and $H$ an subset of $G$, for which $ab \in H$ for all $a, b \in H$ but $H$ is not a subgroup of $G$ ?
My laptop literally died without warning me of the low battery heh
Yes, when the whole group is infinite we also require closure under inversion
OK thanks @Corellian
06:50
Think of a counterexample for your question @Alex
More generally, $G$ can be an infinite group. Then any finite subset $H$ closed under $G$ is in fact a subgroup. Of course, if $G$ is finite, then so must be $H$
It gets more complicated considering infinite subsets of infinite groups @Alex
@Corellian I guess for a counterexample, $G = \mathbb{Q}^+$ (under multiplication) and $H = \{1, 2, 4, 8,16, \cdots \}$ works
Right @Alex. Indeed any subgroup of $G$ should be a group in its right (with respect to the same operation) and that $H$ is not
Also, take the additive group $\Bbb Z$. The subset of positive integers is closed under sums but not negatives, so it is not a subgroup of $\Bbb Z$
(and a more alarming red flag, does not contain the identity! immediate failure)
^any subgroup of $G$ should be a group in its *own right
07:16
@Corellian The way Pinter does it is essentially the same anyway. One can always make a map surjective by restricting the codomain, and the result only cares about the image anyway.
@TobiasKildetoft Yeah, you're right. I suppose his way is more (aesthetically?) pleasing. The whole target group preserves the desired information under the homomorphism
I think I am missing something. An arbitrary finitely additive measure $\mu$ only need to fulfill 3 axioms (empty set is measure zero, finite additivity and nonnegative). Now a unit ball in $\ell^{\infty}$ is given by $B_1 = \{x_n \in \ell^{\infty} : \sup_n |x_n| \leq 1\}$. Plugging everything in we have:

$$\mu \left(B_1\right) = \mu \left( \bigcup_{i=0}^{n} A_i\right) = \sum_{i=0}^n \mu(A_i)$$.

$A_i$ for example, can be made by partitioning the set of all sequences bounded above by 1 into 5 portions. Now unless $\mu$ is defined as such that any sequence with the same sup has the same mea
and thus, I cannot managed to make a proof by contradiction
07:42
Where in the proof of Legendre's formula do we use the fact that p is prime?
I mean, if c is a composite positive number, can we use the same formula to determine highest power dividing n!?
@Silent Which one is Legendre's formula?
@TobiasKildetoft This one.
Ohh, I didn't know that had a name
I also found out yesterday :)
But no, we can't use the same formula for non-primes
In general, the formula will undercount (take for example $c=6$ in $3!$)
07:48
thanks
08:11
@LeakyNun @Alessandro @AkivaWeinberger Here's something for you guys to ponder about:
> Without Axiom of choice. Is there exists a partition of the reals into countably infinitely many uncountable sets such that none of them are cocountable?
The closest thing I can find is a partition of the reals into uncountably many cantor set like copies:
8
Q: Partition $\Bbb{R}$ into a family of sets each one homeomorphic to the Cantor set

user36763It is known that there is no (nontrivial) partition of $\Bbb{R}$ into a countable number of closed set. But is there a partition of $\Bbb{R}$ into sets, each one homeomorphic to the cantor ternary set?

C be a Cantor set, consider {R - C, C}
Oh you said countably infinitely many not countably many
yeah, I am one of those few people who like to use countable when I mean "countably infinite" and "finite" to mean finite
It should still be something dumb, consider cantor sets C_i of width 1/3 at each integer i. Then think about {C_1, C_2, C_3, ..., R - (C_1 \cup C_2 \cup ...)}
How is $f(x) = \displaystyle\frac{\cos^2 x}{1+a^x}$ an even function? $a>0$
hmm... right....
08:19
I got $f(-x) = \displaystyle\frac{a^x \cos^2 x}{1+a^x}$
so that means a countable partition of the reals into non cocountable sets is not sufficient to conclude non lebesgue measurability...
Oh wait it's not even
$\Bbb R\times \Bbb N$ should biject with $\Bbb R$ even without AC, pick $f:\Bbb R\times \Bbb N\to \Bbb R$ such a bijection and partition the latter as $f(\Bbb R\times\{n\})$
@AlessandroCodenotti I think you need countable choice for that bijection
But how is $\displaystyle\int_{-\pi}^{\pi}\frac{\cos^2 x}{1+a^x}$ always $\pi/2$?
a>0
08:21
ahh, no, you don't need anything like that
I am not sure why I took Cantor sets, really. Just take intervals I_i = (i-1/3, i+1/3) around each integer i. Then think about {I_1, I_2, ..., R - (I_1 \cup I_2 \cup ...)}
Can't you explicitely construct a bijection $\Bbb R^2\to\Bbb R$?
@AlessandroCodenotti yes
Your cantor set example is better fit, cause I initially thought cocountable is enough to exclude any set that contains intervals
Btw, the underlying context for that pondering is as follows:
So I have been rereading the proof of the nonmeasurability of the vitali set. Eventually I noticed how the construction of the vitali set lead to the reals to be partitioned into countably many portions. Then since lesbegue measure is translationally invariant and all measures have to obey countable additivity, there is no positive number such that a countable sum of it can give a finite number, thus result in the vitali set to be nonmeasurable.
This caused me to wonder what is the minimal criteria for a set to become nonmeasurable. My initial guess is outlined in the question above, but balarka have got a counterexample for me, thus I am currently back to the drawing board
I have totally forgotten the Vitali construction
(Hey that rhymes)
08:29
Anyone?
@BalarkaSen it doesn't to me!
@BalarkaSen You mean totally and Vitali?
Spell "totally" and "Vitali" homonymously
those don't rhyme to me either. The "a" in Vitali is longer
The investigation thus boils down to what kind of special property does axiom of choice gave to us that allow sets to become nonmeasurable, which at this moment, I so far only pin it down to a necessary condition of making countable partitions of an interval into uncountable sets (which causes the lesbegue measure to fail to give a finite number). Still trying to dig deeper atm
08:31
I spell it as Viteli because I'm a snub
@BalarkaSen aesop rock has a weird influence on you. Waiting for your first math rap album
Hello. In some video on youtube some proffessor said that number theory cannot be done without algebra, so i started searching for use of algebra in number theory. One method of solving i got was using gaussian integers, it was cool. The second i got was gauss reduction of quadratic forms, but could not understand it. What are the other possible things?
Algebraic number theory is a whole branch of maths
But so is analytic number theory to be fair
yes, but i cannot study them right now, so i was just looking at methods of solving using algebra
any you know
?
@AlessandroCodenotti I have totally forgotten the Vitally construction though I have residually stored the memories neurally gathered aurally through conversations Uhhh -- starts beatboxing
The last bit doesn't fit in the beat quite as well as I want
I am not a rappa
@Shobhit Some basic stuff would be the proof of Euler's theorem, generalizing Fermat's little theorem, as a consequence of Lagrange's index theorem
But using Gaussian integers is cool too, for example allowing one to count the number of ways to write a number as a sum of two squares
hmm...
Now to figure how to zoom further in...
ooohh that was cool,found many links, ty @TobiasKildetoft
In other words, a system where non measurable sets can be proved to exists involve countably additive measures where singletons are of zero measure, and a choice stronger than dependent choice
this is consistent with what we knew about the vitali construction
So I guess, the next step is to figure out how the DC+ choice generates non measurability...
08:47
My internet is broken today
So progress on the quest for infinity so far:
Naturals -> visualised
Integers -> Visualised
Rationals -> Visualised ... sort of
Irrationals -> Partially visualised
Reals -> Visualised
$\omega_1$ -> Visualised
Cantor family of sets -> Visulised
Infinite dedekind finite sets -> Visualised .. sort of
Amorphous sets -> Visualised ... sort of
Vitali set -> Viauslised .. sort of
Bernstein set -> NEXT
Non measurable sets -> In progress
Perfect set -> Not yet visualised
$G_{\delta}$ sets -> Not yet comprehended
Borel algebra -> Not yet fully comprehended
Now, better get back to my chemistry stuff...
09:13
morning
@secret I see you'r still here ^^
I am still online, but I am doing things in the background
my chemistry stuff atm is data analysis, thus it is done on my comp anyway...
09:28
Neat. MathSciNet explicitly allows you to include an evaluation of the quality of a paper in your reviews, as long as it is stated in a professional manner.
09:58
Is "yo dawg this is lit fam" professional?
@BalarkaSen I am not sure I even understand what it means
10:13
@TobiasKildetoft I'm surprised you haven't seen that phrase in papers
@Daminark Yeah, it does seem like the sort of thing that would be in most papers
I was eating berries. I think I swallowed one accidentally.
@BalarkaSen Is that what the phrase means? Or is it just the sounds you make in that situation?
Yeah exactly, if that's how you present a theorem in this paper then surely that's how some evaluations can be included
Do you guys happened to know any important theorems that requires additive (instead of multiplicative) absorbers?
10:27
@TobiasKildetoft have you ever thought about how much of a group G is determined by the category of G-sets?
@MatheinBoulomenos No, I haven't. You mean a sort of non-linear Morita equivalence?
yeah, that was what I was thinking about
So my first place to look would be at the various groups of automorphisms in the category
Since G-modules are the abelian group objects in the category of G-modules, this in particular implies that the category of G-modules are equivalent and if you tensor with a field k, you get that the group algebras over any field are Morita equivalent
@Secret I really enjoy reading your long posts in this chat.
10:35
@MatheinBoulomenos You only get that the group algebras are Morita equivalent, right?
yeah I noticed it, too
@TobiasKildetoft any ideas on my question?
@MatheinBoulomenos So that means groups which are equivalent like this have the same block structure.
For all primes
And obviously have the same order
But if we look at, say group algebras of finite groups over $\Bbb{C}$ is it even possible that $\Bbb C[G]$ and $\Bbb C[H]$ are Morita equivalent, but not isomorphic? In the Wedderburn decomposition of $\Bbb C[G]$, we always have a factor of $\Bbb C$ due to the trivial representation, but if we take a matrix ring $M_n(\Bbb C[G])$, there is no factor of $\Bbb C$ for $n\geq 2$ (due to uniqueness in Artin-Wedderburn)
this argument should work over any field
at least with semisimple group rings
@MatheinBoulomenos The algebras being Morita equivalent just means that the groups have the same number of irreducibles
Whereas the algebras being isomorphic means that these irreducibles have the same dimensions
10:42
Oh of course, I was thinking about Brauer groups, where Morita equivalence can be characterized via matrix ring
that was nonsense yeah
okay so they have the same number of conjugacy classes
and the same number of conjugacy classes of elements of any given prime power order
sorry, of any given order not divisible by a given prime
$$bu+a \implies b(u + a) + a \implies bu + ba +a \implies bu + (b+1) a$$
Hmm, seems implausible that they could be equivalent without being isomorphic
This is the structure in question:
1. $(a + b) + c = a + (b + c)$
2. $0 + a = a + 0 = a$
3. $a + b = b + a$
4. $(ab)c = a(bc)$
5. $1a = a1 =a$
6. $a (b + c) = ab + ac$
7. $(a + b)c = ac + bc$
8. $0a = a0 = 0$
9. $u + a = a + u = u$
10:46
I forget if the integral group algebra already determines the group
I think it does, whereas we obviously need the structure as a Hopf algebra to get the group from the algebra over the complex numbers
But we only have Morita equivalence of the integral group algebras
Right, which is even weaker
So we will need some of the non-linear stuff as well
Other results:
$bu + uu = (b+u)u=uu$
$uuu+uuu=u(uu+uu)=u(u(u+u))=u(u(u))=uuu$
but otherwise, the significance is still not clear
10:55
Some random thoughts: the functor that takes each G-set to its invariants is represented by Hom(pt,-) where a one-point set is characterized as the final object, so we get the invariants functor from the category. Is G isomorphic to the automorphism group of that functor?
Silent: There is silence because calculations have shown that at least one user here actually does not see my messages
I think the automorphism group of the forgetful functor from G-set to set is isomorphic to G, but I'm not sure how to get that from the category
@MatheinBoulomenos You can get the size of the set as the number of hom's from the terminal object
Not sure if that is quite enough to get the forgetful functor though
@TobiasKildetoft no, you can only send the point in terminal object to a fix-point under the G-action
Ohh, right
As you just said
11:00
No wait, the fix-point functor doesn't lead anywhere. By Yoneda Hom(Hom(pt,-),Hom(pt,-)) is isomorphic to Hom(pt,pt) which is trivial
3 hours ago, by Secret
@LeakyNun @Alessandro @AkivaWeinberger Here's something for you guys to ponder about:
3 hours ago, by Secret
> Without Axiom of choice. Is there exists a partition of the reals into countably infinitely many uncountable sets such that none of them are cocountable?
@Secret Uh… $[n,n+1)$?
(@LeakyNun @AlessandroCodenotti)
@AkivaWeinberger yeah, I made a mistake as balarka implicitly pointed out, I forgot to excluded intervals
Oh
$([n,n+1)\cap\Bbb Q)\cup([n+1,n+2)\setminus\Bbb Q)$
Something stupid like that
yeah, it turns out (a few messages later down the transcript) that underlying question is not a trivial one and that non cocountable sets is not sufficient to ensure non measurability
@TobiasKildetoft From the fixed-points functor to set, we can also get the functor from set to G-set that gives each set a trivial G-action, because that's the left adjoint to the fixed-points-functor, maybe we can get the forgetful functor from that?
11:07
also... a continuity analysis suggest that tobias actually cannot see my messages
it does not seemed so just because alessandro happened to relay part of it outside
resulting in a false positive continuity reading
@Secret Or maybe I just ignore random questions that happen to be addressed to me
2
well, that question on MSE had been tumbleweed for a few days
and there is not progress so far, and other algebra guys don't have much clue on it so far
Perhaps I should wait longer...
Anyone wants to recommend me some c l a s s i c a l music?
@MatheinBoulomenos Hmm, so we can get the number of orbits by considering hom's to those with trivial action and more than one object
But I don't see how to get better than that
@TobiasKildetoft I'm off now, I'll probably ask this on main later, thanks for your input
11:39
@BalarkaSen Yeah, I just did some today: youtube.com/watch?v=DRChXlr57GI
@Secret It's OK to be ignored, though this may not be the case here. Never let others have mental leverage over you and affect how you feel.
What if we told you, they will no longer have that option by 2020...
Abcd: THAT, is The Plan, in its full glory
12:09
Gasparo: The thing I hate the most, is not even a human being, and that is is the frustrating part
@Secret I do not understand. What is it that you hate the most?
Ghosting and ignorance (and at the social level: Apathy)
Anything the perpetrator that does, and nobody can be able to brought them to justice, a karma houdini
@Secret In life, we just need to do our best, and kamma will take care of the rest. Don't struggle.
karma?... too slow
and so many have got away, mao zhe dong have mascarred many people, and he only died of old age
Kamma may take many lifetimes to come to fruition, but it will come indeed.
12:13
and what about the help vampires, thinking there are ways to stop them, they just keep coming back
Those who are being ignored, don't even knew they are being ignored, and have their lives slowly wasted to nothingness
This present life is just one in a whole series of lives we have. This universe is beginningless and endless.
And let's not get to apathy itself...
I don't care what the universe think, this is the one and only thing I hate, and in order to prove that a concept is not invulnerable, the universe will be erased, and stay erased
steps in Whoops, wrong chat room steps out
Feb 9 at 13:52, by 0celo7
I think Secret has finally snapped
What 0celo saw is nothing
COMAPRED TO THIS!!!
Balarka: Please made your way to shelter the h bar, thank you
Let us show you what our true form is
(This is going to get interesting..., lol)
Please dont
Im a humble man who comes here to shitpost and do math
3
this conversation is too much for my brain
have some mercy on the innocents fam
\o @AkivaWeinberger
12:33
I'm feeling a bit good because I found a Japanese sentence in the wild that I actually understood the grammar of. "未来の文字コード体系に私達は不安をもっています。" Literally "Future no character code system ni we wa anxiety o have", translating to "We are feeling anxious for the future character encoding system"
although technically there's only one conjugation in that sentence and it's one I haven't learned yet
(Also I like how the Japanese word for "code" is cōdo, clearly a loanword)
there are many loanwords in japanese, such as the japanese for chocolate
And "table", would you believe
(and so far the only one I can recognise without looking up a translation)
@AkivaWeinberger well there's tsukue for table
They have native words for table but apparently they also use tēburu (from English)
12:35
sniped
because English is fancy or something
japanese have a strong fascination of the western culture
they will go O_O if you tell them you are from australia

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