@TedShifrin @Tuki Found the 'proof' I was looking for yesterday that didn't sound believable through a cached version of PlanetMath. Could you guys confirm whether it's wrong or not?
For any finite family $(a_i)_{i\in I}$ of real numbers in the interval $[0,1]$ we have $$\prod_i(1-a_i)\ge 1-\sum_ia_i\;.$$ Proof: Write $$f=\prod_i(1-a_i)+\sum_ia_i\;.$$ For any $k\in I$ and any fixed values of the $a_i$ for $i\ne k,$ $f$ is a polynomial of the first degree in $a_k$ Consequently $f$ is minimal either at $a_k=0$ or $a_k=1$ That brings us down to two cases: all the $a_i$ are zero, or at least o…