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04:00
I also can't tell if I do actually get it, but there is just a communication barrier between me and everyone who really understands it
04:30
2 hours ago, by Ted Shifrin
Tensor product is not a map.
@WilliamOliver kindly follow this
47 mins ago, by 0celo7
@WilliamOliver honestly unless you're trying to be very algebraic just think of tensors as multilinear maps
so this is wrong
Whats the difference between a map and an operation
the name
@WilliamOliver it makes multilinear maps into linear maps
Okay so, I found something, a few lines down from en.wikipedia.org/wiki/… here it says that it is an operation
A bilinear one
that takes two vector spaces to the tensor product space
"This product operation $ \otimes :V\times W\rightarrow V\otimes W$ is quickly verified to be bilinear.
1 min ago, by William Oliver
Okay so, I found something, a few lines down from https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Tensor_product#Tensor_product_of_vector_spaces here it says that it is an operation
no, it doesn't
ok
Then what does that quote mean
04:35
you're confusing the process of generating the product and the object itself that we call the tensor product
also, the quote is talking about the small tensor symbol
i.e. $v \otimes w$
it does not say that $V \otimes W$ is an operation
Oh right okay
I think I am just having communication issues
I just communicate poorly
I think I fully understand now
Although, actually, I think it is still a bilinear operation right. If we take a vector space to itself be a vector in the vector space of vector spaces with the operation $\oplus$
But that is irrelevant
04:41
@LeakyNun ted's statement and mine are not incompatible
@WilliamOliver read Chapter 12 of Lee's smooth manifolds if you can get it
pages 305 - 307
That's a rather short chapter
@Daminark o.O
@Daminark that's the part he needs
[Random]
(The following message is delayed)
04:49
@WilliamOliver and then go to 311
there's really no need for free vector spaces or the universal property
@0celo7 Thanks!
@MichaelHardy I'm back on. Thanks for pinging me
I'm going to open up a room
@MichaelHardy Please see chat.stackexchange.com/rooms/72526/…
05:42
Any one about ? Need some help with an integral
Hi, how would you prove $\int_{0}^{2\pi} u(e^{i\theta}(x+iy)) sin(\theta)d\theta$ is a polynomial if $u$ is harmonic
polynomila in indeterminates x,y
 
2 hours later…
07:41
@Daminark That is what happens when I wrote some of my proofs in my linear algebra course back in the past
[Random]
Hello, I have a yes or no question:) Does this set $S=\{x:x_1+2x_2\le 4\}$ has extreme points?
There, I made a plot of the grades given as determined by my own scores and after meeting with the external evaluator. For a large enough sample size, the grading scale was designed so that it should be normally distributed with an average of 7
It is not quite like that here imgur.com/a/bjYQd
3
Q: Why, in terms of the structure of proofs and proof strategy, is this proof of mine said to be backwards in logic?

SecretLast year when I was doing the linear algebra and proof writing course, I was often said by my friends and my professors that the logical flow of my proofs are weird or even backwards. Recently, I accidentally stumbled upon this site. After analysing it and comparing with the standard approaches...

Daminark: for example here
I unawarely (mis)proved the converse instead of the intended
07:55
hello
`someone know this theorem
Let $u\in L^1_{loc}(\Omega)$ such that $$\int_{\Omega} u(x)\xi(x) dx=0,~\xi\in C_0(\Omega).$$ Then, $$u\equiv0~\text{a.e. in}~ \Omega.$$
Just got a Google Scholar update, because apparently the place I uploaded my lecture notes for representation theory is indexed there.
?
what i must surch ?
@Vrouvrou depends on what you want to find
this theorem:
Let $u\in L^1_{loc}(\Omega)$ such that $$\int_{\Omega} u(x)\xi(x) dx=0,~\xi\in C_0(\Omega).$$ Then, $$u\equiv0~\text{a.e. in}~ \Omega.$$
i founded in a thesis as the " Du Bois Reymond"
Tobias, vrou. It seems to be a L^1 special case of this:
11
Q: Integral vanishes on all intervals implies the function is a.e. zero

rondo9I am having trouble with the following problem: $f:\mathbb{R}\to \mathbb{R}$ is a measurable function such that for all $a$: $$\int_{[0,a]}f\,dm=0.$$ Prove that $f=0$ for $m$ almost every $x$ (here $m$ is the Lebesgue measure). I have no problem proving this for $f$ non-negative, or u...

08:10
@Secret but in the version i have $\xi$ under the integral
$\xi$ has something to do with the integration region, I suspect it might be a measure or something
I recall seeing something similar in my electrodynamics 3rd year undergrad crouse, but they have gave no name
$\xi\in C_0$
08:27
@Anneliset. I think no as every point in $S$ can be covered by open line segments that are parallel to x+2y=4
vrou: all similar looking theorems don't seemed to have a name
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[Random]
there is no book where i can found it ?
I have no idea, but that results (and its relatives) are often tied to measure zero functions, so I guess some books on lebesgue integration and measure theory might have it, though I strongly doubt it even has a name
ok thank you
[Random]
â‘ 
\begin{align}
\textbf{x}+\textbf{0} & = \textbf{x}\\
\textbf{x}1 & = \textbf{x}\\
a(b\textbf{x}) & = (ab)\textbf{x}\\
(\textbf{x}+ \textbf{y}) + \textbf{z} & = \textbf{x} + (\textbf{y} + \textbf{z})\\
\textbf{x}+ \textbf{y} & = \textbf{y} + \textbf{x}\\
\textbf{x}+ (-\textbf{x}) & = \textbf{0}\\
a(\textbf{x}+ \textbf{y}) & = a\textbf{x}+ a\textbf{y}\\
(a + b)\textbf{x} & = a\textbf{x}+ b\textbf{x}\\
\end{align}
â‘¡
\begin{align}
\textbf{x} : V \mapsto V^*\\
\tilde{w} : V^* \mapsto V\\
\end{align}
â‘¢
\begin{align}
\text{f}_i \in\mathcal{B}\\
\text{v} & = \sum_{i \in I} a_i\textbf{f}^i\\
\text{g}_i \in\mathcal{B}\\
\tilde{w} & = \sum_{i \in J} b^i\textbf{g}_i
\end{align}
typo
â‘¡
\begin{align}
\textbf{x} : V \mapsto \Bbb{F}\\
\tilde{w} : V^* \mapsto \Bbb{F}\\
\end{align}
o great ths is all wrong
going to do this in one go to prevent flooding
 
2 hours later…
10:48
1
Q: $G’$ be the graph constructed by squaring the weights of edges in $G$

Mithlesh UpadhyayLet $G$ be a weighted graph with edge weights greater than one and $G’$ be the graph constructed by squaring the weights of edges in $G$. Let $T$ and $T’$ be the minimum spanning trees of $G$ and $G’$, respectively, with total weights $t$ and $t’$. Which of the following statements is TRUE? $T’...

11:01
hello
[Random cont.]
Example of utterly wrong and totally incomprehensible stuff because I have no idea what I am doing and suffer from the Dunning–Kruger effect:
â‘ 
\begin{align}
V & := \{ \textbf{x,y,z},a,b \in \Bbb{F} :\\
\textbf{x}+\textbf{0} & = \textbf{x}\\
\textbf{x}1 & = \textbf{x}\\
a(b\textbf{x}) & = (ab)\textbf{x}\\
(\textbf{x}+ \textbf{y}) + \textbf{z} & = \textbf{x} + (\textbf{y} + \textbf{z})\\
\textbf{x}+ \textbf{y} & = \textbf{y} + \textbf{x}\\
\textbf{x}+ (-\textbf{x}) & = \textbf{0}\\
a(\textbf{x}+ \textbf{y}) & = a\textbf{x}+ a\textbf{y}\\
(a + b)\textbf{x} & = a\textbf{x}+ b\textbf{x}\}\\
\end{align}
â‘¡
\begin{align}
\textbf{x} : V \mapsto \Bbb{F}\\
if i have $f(x,y)=x+y+4\sin(x)\sin(y)$ what can i say when $f(x,y)\ge 0$ ??
Tuki: I don't see what can be said about the function if it is nonegative, bumps?
how large is your image ?
plot from both $x,y$ in $]-2,2[$
11:16
ok, so mathpix does not even align its graph at the origin...
The exact question is: What can be said from following statements when dot (x,y) is close enough to origin ?
then the exact statement is $$ x+y+4\sin(x)\sin(y)\ge 0 $$
something like matlab is great. I can have very specific plots
(0,0) seemed to be a saddle point, thus your f can be +ve or -ve depending on how you approach it
yes
however if you compute gradient at point $(0,0)$ you get vector $$\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}$$
but shouldn't gradient be zero in saddle point ?
now this is confusing
11:37
@Secret what you mean with ve ?
vector ?
negative and positive
vector right ?
or gradient ?
so direction $\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 1\end{bmatrix} $ is increasing
$\begin{bmatrix} -1 \\ -1 \end{bmatrix}$ is also increasing ?
$\begin{bmatrix} 1 \\ 0 \end{bmatrix}$ and $\begin{bmatrix} 0 \\ 1 \end{bmatrix}$ are decreasing directions ?
if we look from $(0,0)$ ?
now this does makes sense but how to prove this ?
hi
Can someone help me prove $E = F - int(F)$ is a nowhere dense closed set if $F$ is a closed set
closed part is easy
i am not able to show N.D
I know two definitions of N.D set
$Int(Cl(A)) = \phi$
and, for any open set $U$ there exists an open proper subset $V$ of $U$ such that $A \cap V = \phi$
11:57
I hope one day to be smart enough to make difference
me too
12:11
3 days unanswered, please help guys math.stackexchange.com/questions/2625222/…
I can start a bounty on your question to attract attention @Unknown123
You already know it's closed, so show it has empty interior
yes, i have tried to no avail. I am using the first definition, but cant show it.
Suppose $F-\text{int}(F)$ has an interior point for contradiction
What does that mean?
@AlessandroCodenotti contradiction :'(
12:22
then there exists a ball contained in that set around that point
@AlessandroCodenotti
Right, but if that ball is in $F-\text{int}(F)$ then it's also in $F$
So that point is an interior point of $F$
So you have an interior point of $F$ in $F-\text{int}(F)$
12:28
but B(x,r) is not in Int(F), so x is not in interior of F, contradiction?
noooo
sorry
so $Int(F -Int(F))$ is a subset of $Int(F)$
@AlessandroCodenotti
Yes, but that's not a problem, the contradiction is the one in my last message
oh, got it
an interior point of $F$ cannot be contained in $F - int(F)$
correct?
@AlessandroCodenotti
Yes, you just removed them
yeah, thank you :)
12:47
Hello stupid question
what is the covariance matrix of (x, y) where x and y are the coordinates of a point randomly chosen from a circle with uniform angular probability?
so does anyone know about this problem ?
How do you prove a point is saddle point ?
ok I am dumb
@Tuki Hessian matrix
even though the point isn't considered as critical point since $\nabla f(0,0)\neq 0$ does hessian matrix work in this case @nathdwek ?
well i can always try
My understanding is that a saddle point is always a critical point
i agree but isn't the definition that critical point exist when $\nabla f(x,y)=0$, when $\nabla f(x,y)$ is not defined (example: division with 0), when the point belongs to border of the domain ?
domain in this case would be $(x,y)\in \mathbb{R}$ ?
this wouldn't fall into any of these categories
13:02
I need to prove that every complete metric space is a baire space.
i am thinking of showing that if $A_{n}$ is a sequence of open dense sets then $A = \cap_{n \in N} A_{n}$ is dense in $X$.
Can someone help me in how to start this
I am thinking of starting with contradiction that there exists an open set $O$ in $X$ s.t $A \cap O = \phi$
but how can i use here that X is complete?
where to use the complete property?
what is baire space @Shobhit ?
have you studied topology? @Tuki
nope
then it will be hard to understand now, try googling it if you wish to know
I am familiar with what topology means in terms of 3d-modeling but this doesn't probably translate to mathematics
13:10
@tuki It probably does, but it might not translate to the undergraduate curriculum.
I agree
yes, your 3D model should be like you can stretch but cannot break, along those ines
*lines
@PVAL-inactive any ideas? how can i use complete property here?
You are going to have to use the metric in some way.
the metric is not given
I'm unsure how to give a hint without giving it away.
13:16
:(
ok, i'll continue thinking
13:27
Hi I have this simple question in graph theory: math.stackexchange.com/questions/2630532/…
I want to understand this statement:
Observe that a graph is a cluster graph if and only if it does not contain a path on three vertices (P3) as an induced subgraph
suppose I have several connected component, each are complete graph. Then, by fact above, it is not cluster graph; since it does have path with 3 vertices.
cluster graph is the collection of disjoint cliques.
Hey everyone
Yo @Daminark
@Sobhit to show that the intersection is dense you want to show that it hits every open set, in particular every open ball
So call $A=\bigcap A_i$ where $\{A_i\}$ is your countable family of dense open sets and let $U$ be an open ball, you want to show $U\cap A\neq\varnothing$ knowing $U\cap A_i\neq\varnothing$ for all $i$
But you actually know more about $U\cap A_i$ than just the fact that the intersection is nonempty
And I've given too many hints already :P
14:10
is there any trig identity which can be used for $\int tan^5 x sec^3 xdx$?
@Trey The typical approach for those kinds of problems is to use power reduction formulae
and to know the derivatives of $\tan$ and $\sec$
Why is $\phi[M]$ an open submanifold of $\widehat{M}$?
$\phi[M]$ need not necessarily be an open subset of $\widehat{M}$
14:38
@Trey You might want to check via WolframAlpha whether that has a nice antiderivative in the first place
If it was $\sec^2 x$ I'd be sure that it does. But with $\sec^3 x$ I'm not nearly as confident
@Semiclassical Indeed it's not that pretty, I managed to solve it by rewriting it as $\int(-1 sec^2(x))^2 tan(x) sec^3 x$$ and setting $u = sec(x)$
@Perturbative inverse function theorem
it might be easier with the substitution $v=\cos x$
But that's just a variation on the same theme
@Perturbative an embedding of equidimensional manifolds is an open map
14:43
sec^3 has an antiderivative
its actually a problem in spivak
sure. it's just not as obvious to me what it is, whereas I've got $\frac{d}{dx}\tan x=\sec^2 x$ in my memory banks
He calls it "very important"
it reduces to sec
so you need to know how to integrate that
yeah, $\int \sec x\,dx$ isn't very obvious iirc
not absurdly hard, by any means
but not obvious
14:45
@PVAL-inactive is he being sarcastic?
I don't think so.
why would the antiderivative of secant be important?
iirc its log|sec x + tan x|
Lots of trignometric functions show up naturally in physics, geometry, pdes and odes.
I don't know where sec^3 shows up only that Spivak seemed to be hinting at something important.
$$\frac{d}{dx}\sec x=\frac{\sin x}{(\cos x)^2}=\tan x\sec x$$
that's cute, I guess
14:48
what? no cube
durrrrrr brain
its sec(x) tan(x)
Hey guys
yeah, not sure wtf I was thinking
thats why the thing i said works; log(sec(x) + tan(x)) differentiates to (sec(x)tan(x)
+ sec^2(x))/(sec(x) + tan(x))
which is sec(x), conveniently
14:50
right
i'm trying to think how $\int \sec^3 x\,dx$ would relate to $\int \sec x\,dx$ in terms of integration by parts
well it's sec(x) d(tan(x))
actually, though, I'm probably making things too complicated
So that is convenient
oh, nice
yeah
I'm trying to find the value of the series $\sum _{n=1}^\infty \frac {1}{(2n+1)^{2}}$ by using Fourier. I have this equation and need to find a suitable $x$ to get a value for the above series

$$x(1-x) = \frac{1}{6} - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos(2\pi n x)}{\pi^2 n^2}$$

Does anybody have an idea which $x$ to choose? (already tried $0,\frac{1}{2}$, but those yield different series...)
14:51
Hm, I have to integrate tan(x) d(sec(x)) later on
Which is sec(x) tan^2(x) dx
@philmcole well, my first instinct would be to choose $x$ so that $\cos(2\pi n x)=0$ when $n$ is even
So in particular $\cos(4\pi x)=0$
What values of $x\in [0,1]$ will work for that?
This could work!
$[0,1)$
right
same difference since the series is 1-periodic, though
Yeah, but $1=0$
because you are on the torus!
Hmm I need to choose an $x$ so that the inside is something like $\frac{\pi}{2},\frac{3\pi}{2},\frac{5\pi}{2}$... so that the cosine is zero
14:58
Right. So you want $4\pi x = \pi (m+1/2)$ for integer $m$
though writing it like that a bit overkill here.
So what $x$ is that?
$x = \frac{m + 1/2}{4}$
yeah. so 1/8,3/8,5/8,7/8
I'm a little unsure this is the right route, though
So $\frac{2m+1}{8}$
for $m$ an integer
let's choose $m=1$ then
then this is in the interval
or $m=0$ should work too I guess?
the problem I see is that, while cos will vanish on the even n, the odd terms won't all have the same sign
and you definitely don't want that
I think I see the 'right' approach, though
15:04
You noted that the series for x=0 and x=1/2 don't give you what you want
just for the sake of argument, can you write out those two cases here?
I'm fine with you just writing down the first few terms for each of them
Like this?
Case $x=0$:

$$0 = x(1-x) = \frac{1}{6} - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos(2\pi n x)}{\pi^2 n^2} = \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{\pi^2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2}$$

therefore $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^2} = \frac{\pi^2}{6}$.

Case $x=\frac{1}{2}$

$$\frac{1}{4} = x(1-x) = \frac{1}{6} - \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos(2\pi n x)}{\pi^2 n^2} = \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{\pi^2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{\cos(\pi n)}{n^2} = \frac{1}{6} - \frac{1}{\pi^2}\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2}$$

therefore $\sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{(-1)^n}{n^2} = -\frac{\pi^2}{12}$.
Right. Or, to put it more concretely:
\begin{align}
1+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{16}+\cdots &= \frac{\pi^2}{6},\\
-1+\frac{1}{4}-\frac{1}{9}+\frac{1}{16}-\cdots &= -\frac{\pi^2}{12},\\
\end{align}
Agreed?
What happens if you take the difference of those two series?
Ahhhh
15:08
yuuup
haha I thought way to complicated
Equivalently, you can look at this as $f(1/2)-f(0)$
That's probably the shortest way to write this out, since it makes it unnecessary to verify those two series separately
That's the easier solution of the three indeed
Thanks man
15:11
np
I should note that you see variations on this trick a lot
For example, suppose $F(z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n z^n$
Then $F(z)+F(-z)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n [z^n+(-z)^n]=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n z^n(1+(-1)^n)=\sum_{k=0}^\infty 2a_{2k}z^{2k}$
Which is really not much more than saying $\frac{1}{2}(F(z)+F(-z))$ is the even part of $F(z)$
Got it
But it means that, if we know how to compute $F(z)$, then we can not only get $F(1)=\sum_{n=0}^\infty a_n$ but we can actually get the sum of just the even/odd terms
I get the feeling to be good at math you need to have really a lot of those tricks up your sleeve all the time
15:16
depends what you do, really
I've used this trick in actual research, but it was natural in context
a more advanced version of this is to do something like $F(z)+F(\omega z)+F(\omega^2 z)$ with $\omega = e^{2\pi i/3}$
yikes
It's not bad, actually: $1+\omega^n+\omega^{2n}=0$ if $n$ isn't a multiple of 3
and if it is, it just equals 3
So that sum will 'filter out' those coefficients which aren't multiples of 3
And with something like that you can get the sum of only the $n$-th terms?
@Semiclassicali have used this method many times in calculating sum of binomial coefficient
^
@philmcole right
15:19
Will get more complicated for $n \gt 3$ then I suppose
nice trick
yeah. the name you'll see for it is the 'root of unity filter'
oh yeah the first result shows the binomial coefficient immediately
15:24
@AlessandroCodenotti i also know that every intersection $A_{n} \cap U$, i used that and formed a ball inside one another, had to use cantor intersection theorom (advice of a friend) to conclude. thank you.
15:45
muhahahaha, functionally beaten
16:03
Hello
Do you know something about probability?
nope
but ask away
someone might
guys, is this true:
$$
\int_{-\infty}^\infty\delta(x-\lambda)^2dx=\delta(0)
$$
So you throw an infinite number of coins, equal probabilty to land on each side
@ShaVuklia probably not since that's not a well defined quantity
I'm trying to see why this is true
Call the sides $1$ and $2$...
@Slereah right, well can you explain the screen shot then to me?
What you might be interested in is the wavefront set
16:07
because what I suggested was my attempt at an explanation
Find the probability that you get a sequence of $5$ "0"'s before 3 "1"'s
Which allows you to multiply distributions if their singularities aren't in the "same place"
@Slereah that's directed at me?
So this quantity is well defined if $\lambda \neq \mu$
yes
the context here is just some algebraic manipulations in an introductory course in quantum
wait, I'll give you a bit more
16:08
If it's a QFT book then it's probably not meant to be rigorous
The rigorous version is gonna be using the wavefront set, yes
quantum mechanics
I just want to have some intuition on why it's true
we are basically showing that the position eigenfunctions satisfy some sort of orthogonality condition
well if $\lambda \neq \mu$, the product of those two is gonna be $0$ outside of $\lambda$ and $\mu$
I am interested in the case $\lambda=\mu$
16:09
Well here's the secret : there's no position eigenfunction :p
They're not part of the Hilbert space
that's not the point griffith's is making
the case $\lambda = \mu$ isn't defined
if you want an intuitive version of this, try defining the delta function as the limit of a gaussian
that should give you the reason why this work if the singular supports aren't overlapping
with that last sentence you mean when $\mu\neq\lambda$?
16:14
yes
(the singular support is the domain on which the distribution can't be defined by a function, roughly)
$\text{sing supp}(\delta) = 0$
I'll note that this is a point in standard QM treatments that @0celo7 takes issue with
I think it's the same, anyways (that there's no such thing as position eigenfunctions in Hilbert space as such)
16:57
@Daminark eyo
do you want to hear a small rant on continued fractions

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