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13:00
@AkivaWeinberger Thank you so much! will you please let me know why $h$ is permutation iff $\gcd(b-a,n)=1$?
@user777 I think you're allowed to have the zero clique, the clique with zero vertices and edges. So for k=2 and larger, the answer would be yes.
@Silent Got to run again, but when is that map injective/surjective?
Ok, thinking.
@AkivaWeinberger Are you saying that the graph that I give with k=4 would return "yes"
hello
13:20
If $k>0$ and $n>2k$ then how to show that $n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)>\frac{n^k}{2^k}$?
if i have $$ \int_D 5\cdot \cos(y)dA \text{ when} D:0\le x \le \pi \text{ and} |y|\le x $$ hmm how would i evaluate this ?
@Adeek Neukirch - Algebraic Number Theory
Does someone understand the notation ?
i Understand that $D$ stands for domain of integration
if domain is $0 \le x \le \pi$ and $|y|\le x$ what does this mean ?
@user777 Also, note that you wrote "at most k cliques"
@AkivaWeinberger I think I understand the definition, once we find one that says yes for such k=c, then it would be always yes for k>c (so we don't care about next)
13:33
$\rightarrow |y|\le 0 \le x \le \pi ??$
@Tuki $\int_{-x}^x\int_0^\pi{\rm stuff}~\mathrm dx~\mathrm dy$
@Tuki draw the range of x, then use $|y| \le x \implies -x \le y \le x$, to see the favourable region over the range of $x$.
@AkivaWeinberger the wrong with k=2 and larger, you mean for general graph? if so, then this would be wrong; since the definition says that we "must cover all edges of graph". It seems that the question says that: the smallest number of cliques that covers all edges of G"
also i think the order doesn't matter in this ?
$\int_{-x}^{x}$ or $\int_{0}^{\pi}$ shouldn't matter which one you evaluate first ?
but one of them might be easier than the other
@Tuki Oh sorry I wrote it wrong
There shouldn't be any variables in the outer limit, because there shouldn't be any variables in the final answer
So it's $\int_0^\pi\int_{-x}^x dydx$
13:41
Yes makes sense
@user777 Your graph only needs 2 cliques, doesn't it? v1v2v3 and v2v3v4
so actually the order does matter
It's getting bit confusing
Hey does anybody know WolframAlpha a bit?
I'm strugglin to compute the Fourier Coefficients of a function
@AkivaWeinberger no, the smallest number of cliques are 3: which are v1v3v4, v1v3, and v1v2.
I want the integral to look like $a_k = \int_0^1 f(x) e^{-2\pi i k x} \, dx$ but I can't see how I tell this to WA.
13:46
hi
Hi @MeowMix
@user777 v1v3v4 isn't a clique. (v1,v4) isn't an edge
Unless you misrote
@philmcole you mean like this ?
wolframalpha.com/input/?i=integrate+(f(x)*e%5E(-2piik*x))+from+0+t‌​o+1
hmm how to tell this chat this whole string is link
you write this to wolfram alpha
integrate (f(x)*e^(-2piik*x)) from 0 to 1
it also interprets i as imaginary unit
as intended i guess ?
@AkivaWeinberger sorry you're right!
it is with 2. (I made mistake! sorry for misleading you) But I don't know: Is it ok to share edges?!
@Tuki Thanks, that seems to work. I tried it with the FourierSeries command but this has some presets I don't understand yet
13:53
@TedShifrin @Eric I have done this problem before. You can construct a subspace $\text{Imm}_{\pitchfork}(M^n, N^{2n}) \subset \text{Imm}(M^n, N^{2n})$ of immersions $f : M \to N$ with only double points such that at every double point $f(p) = f(q) = x$, $df_*(T_p M) \pitchfork df_*(T_q M)$ (i.e, immersions with transverse double point singularities)
This subspace is an open dense subset.
Hi Balarka
The proof is pretty much identical to the transversality theorems and stability theorems in usual transversality theory
Hi @anakhronizein
If a function $f(t)$ is continuous on the interval $[t,t+\delta]$, is it possible to derive the estimate $\sup_{u\in[t,t+\delta]}|f(u)-f(t)|\leq C\delta$ for some constant $C$.
Or do I need more than continuity of $f$=
14:17
@quallenjäger No it should be easy to come up with counterexamples.
As I thought
but uniform continuity would be sufficient?
14:32
@quallenjäger What about $\sqrt x$ on $[0,\delta]$?
You want a single $C$ to work for all $\delta$, right?
Yes
Hmm, I will have $\delta$ in square root right?
What would I need to have this inequality work?
If $H$ and $K$ are normal subgroups of order 2 and 3, respectively, why is $HK$ an abelian group? I don't see it. I could use a hint.
@quallenjäger You'd need $\sqrt\delta\le C\delta$ for this problem, or $\frac1{\sqrt\delta}\le C$, which is impossible as $\frac1{\sqrt\delta}\to\infty$ as $\delta\to0$
Perhaps if it's Lipschitz continuous?
Or continuous differentiable?
@quallenjäger Actually, you know what, I think your thing is equivalent to Lipschitz continuity, if the inequality holds for all $t$.
Or, no
Locally Lipschitz, maybe
if you just need small enough $\delta$
(ex: $x^2$ is locally Lipschitz but not Lipschitz)
14:42
The sup is the problem, but I think with lipschitz continuity it might work.
@quallenjäger Continuous differentiability implies local Lipschitz continuity
Yes, the thing is I don't know how to proof with Lipschitz continuity:D
*locally
@user193319 Choose an element $h\in H$ and $k\in K$. Consider $khk^{-1}$. Since $H$ is normal, this is in $H$.
If you prove $khk^{-1}=h$, you're done (as this is equivalent to $kh=hk$). That's your hint
$sup_{u\in[t,t+\delta]}|f(u)-f(t)|=sup_{u\in[t,t+\delta]}|f'(t_1)(u-0)-f'(t_2)(t‌​-0)|= sup_{u\in[t,t+\delta]}|f'(t_1)-f'(t_2)|(u-t) \leq C(t+\delta-t)=C\delta$
(And remember that $H$ only has two elements)
14:49
The last inequality follows because $f'(t)$ is continuous and the set is compact
Is that right?
Looks like it
@AkivaWeinberger I think you are right, need locally lipschitz
if $f : A \to B$ ($A,B$ topological spaces) and $f$is a continuous, and $V$ is a connected open set in $B$, can I say that $f^{-1}(V)$ is also connected in $A$?
Please someone help here:
2 hours ago, by Silent
If $k>0$ and $n>2k$ then how to show that $n(n-1)\cdots(n-k+1)>\frac{n^k}{2^k}$?
@user8469759 No. Consider $f(x)=x^2$, $\Bbb R\to\Bbb R$. Let $V=(1,4)$.
Then $f^{-1}(V)=(-2,-1)\cup(1,2)$.
@Silent If $n>2k$ then $k<\frac n2$, and $n-k+1>n-\frac n2+1=\frac n2+1$${}>\frac n2$
Thus $n(n-1)\dotsb(n-k+1)>\frac n2\frac n2\dotsb\frac n2$
${}=(\frac n2)^k=\frac{n^k}{2^k}$
15:01
@AkivaWeinberger forgot to add $f$ is a bijection
@AkivaWeinberger, thank you so much!
@user8469759 Still no. The classic example of a bijection which is not a homeomorphism is $f:[0,2\pi)\to S^1$ (where $S^1$ is the unit circle) defined by $f(\theta)=(\cos(\theta),\sin(\theta))$.
Or $f(\theta)=e^{i\theta}$ if you think of it as the unit circle in the complex plane
and I add the homeomorphism?
A small neighborhood around the point $(1,0)$ will have a disconnected inverse image.
@user8469759 If it is a homeomorphism then yes, it will be connected
proof?
15:04
Homeomorphism means that the inverse function $f^{-1}$ is continuous as well
This makes $f^{-1}(V)$ the image of a connected set in a continuous function
and the image of a connected set in a continuous function is always connected
did not think of that
ok
just out of curiosity
why is the image of a connected set also connected?
in case of continuity
By way of contradiction, suppose not. This would mean that the image is the disjoint union of two (nonempty) open sets.
Take the preimage of those two open sets.
The preimages would be nonempty, open, and disjoint as well
meaning that the domain would be the disjoint union of two nonempty open sets, i.e. it would be disconnected. Contradiction
why the preimage of two disjoint set is disjoint?
15:11
$f^{-1}(A\cap B)=f^{-1}(A)\cap f^{-1}(B)$ in general
($x$ in the first set iff $f(x)\in A\cap B$. $x$ is in the set iff $f(x)\in A$ and $f(x)\in B$. These are equivalent)
ok
makes sense
If $A$ and $B$ are disjoint, then the we have $f^{-1}(A)\cap f^{-1}(B)=f^{-1}(A\cap B)=f^{-1}(\emptyset)$${}=\emptyset$ so they're disjoint
@AkivaWeinberger, I still can't see why $\gcd (m,n)=1$ implies that $x\to mx (\pmod n)$ is bijective, where x ranges from 1 to n.
\pmod looks better in LaTeX
15:17
Suppose $mx\equiv my\pmod n$. Then $m(x-y)\equiv0\pmod n$, or $n|m(x-y)$. Since $n$ and $m$ are coordine, we must have $n|x-y$, or $x\equiv y\pmod n$. Thus, it's injective
It's surjective because an injection between two finite sets of the same size is automatically a surjection
Alternatively: You can compute the multiplicative inverse of $m$ mod $n$ when they're coprime. $x\to m^{-1}x\pmod n$ would be the inverse function in that case
and since it has an inverse function it's bijective
*coprime, not coordine
Thank you so much! @AkivaWeinberger
@BalarkaSen if I have an embedded hypersurface S, what does it mean exactly for a vector field X to be "transverse to S"?
@anakhronizein I suspect it means $X|_S \oplus TS = TM|_S$?
That's what I was thinking, but I never know exactly what people mean when they say transverse.
Is there a good treatment on transversality and the general theory of it?
The point is that the flowlines of $X$ are transverse to $S$. Or rather, $S$ is a section of the foliation given by the flowlines of $X$
15:31
Yeah, I guess it does work in this case.
@anakhronizein I just learnt whatever that is in Guillemin-Pollack
But I picked up various other notions of transversality in different contexts I guess
I guess it might be a mathematical maturity thing.
sup nerds
could be
By the way, I have never asked. What exactly do you do, @BalarkaSen ?
15:33
hey @Eric
@anakhronizein Ah, er, that's a little complicated.
Let's say that I am not into academia
You have a lot of points in algebraic topology on math.stackexchange but everything else is a bit cryptic about your user page. ;)
I can see why, academia sucks.
academia is -2/10
I think my first serious exposure to mathematics was learning algebraic topology, so yeah, that's the tag I roam around the most
academia is garbage
i will probably do it but it’s a machine that crushes people
what we need is a machine that crushes machines
and a machine to crush that machine
and so on and so forth
15:37
sorry I should stop dropping that joke randomly
do you know anyone from here that would be from rus ? @BalarkaSen
Hm, no, I think we don't have a chat regular who's from Russia
Can academica be fixed?
Or is it too far gone?
i think the proportion of students vs jobs is a serious issue that would take a nontrivial idea to fix
Because almost everyone I have actually talked to has more or less told me that academia sucks, yet majority of these people are in academia.
15:44
please give me your insight about this
0
Q: PDF of a point in a curve and of a point in a surface.

user8469759Let $\gamma : (\alpha,\beta) \to \mathcal{C} \subset \mathbb{R}^3$ a bijection (or maybe stronger an homeomorphism) representing a parametrized curve. Suppose $t$ is random variable distributed in $(\alpha,\beta)$, I want to derive $p_{X_1,X_2,X_3}(x_1,x_2,x_3)$ (namely the pdf of a point $(X_1...

what do you reckon?
@anakhronizein tbh at least in the US i think the system would just break before it could be fixed
another thing is how you would try to fix it ?
Can we speed up the breaking of academia, perhaps so that it fixes itself by the time I get my Ph.D.?????????
your doing PhD right now ? @anakhronizein
16:06
No. :P
I am not even sure I want to do my Ph.D. I feel like I suck at math.
how to solve $\int \frac{sin^3(\sqrt{x}}{\sqrt{x}})$ ?
Well first try substitution with $u=\sqrt{x}$
Is it just me or derivative calculus is far easier than integral calculus?
@anakhronizein I can't see how that would help
@Trey What would $\mathrm du$ be?
16:20
Well did you try it?
@Mr.Xcoder Differentiation is mechanical
oh, screw what I said, it worked beautifully
@AkivaWeinberger mechanical?
@Mr.Xcoder usually derivative is the easier direction
#1 thing you should try when you are doing an integral is to substitute $u=\text{uglything}$ when there happens to be an ugly thing.
As I tell some students: $u$-substitution stands for "$\text{ugly}$-substitution".
16:25
also @AkivaWeinberger what do you mean with differentiation is mechanical ?
@Tuki he probably means that the rules of differentiation allow you to just algorithmically differentiate a function.
Whereas the rules we teach for integration do not allow you to do this.
but these rules don't apply to all possible functions
No. But for the vast majority of them they do.
And you can tell when you are able to do so easily. Whereas with integration you have some guess work or ingenuity you must use.
probably
do you have example of function that is easy to compute derivative but almost impossible to integrate ?
numerical integration is usually option too ^^
@AkivaWeinberger I just want to point out that this problem is Clique Edge Cover, so you cannot take the edge twice, therefore we cannot take k=2; because we will get two triangle sharing one edge between them!
16:30
I mean that is there function that is easy to derivate but it would be extremely hard to inverse the derivate i mean "antiderivate" == indefinite integral
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{1+x^2}}$ ?
I mean, differentiation is generally comparatively easy
antiderivatives are quite hard in general, and most functions don't even have elementary antiderivatives
This reminds me of how Diffie-Hellman key exchange algorithm works
It's easy to compute in one direction but hard to reverse
I don't know if you have read about this @XanderHenderson ?
@Tuki I don't know that specific algorithm, but I think I know the general idea. Unfortunately, I think that the question of antiderivatives is more subtle.
0
Q: Prove that every non-abelian group of order 6 has a non normal subgroup of order 2.

Ishan SrivastavaI tried using the result that if p is the least prime dividing the order of G, then any subgroup of index p is normal in G. So a subgroup H of order 3 is normal in G. Then, if there was a normal subgroup K of order 2 then G=HK. But how do I get a contradiction?

In the case of a encryption/decryption scheme, there is a right answer
16:40
yes i agree
in the case of integration, most functions don't actually have elementary antiderivatives
for example, $\int t^t \,\mathrm{d}t$
or $\int \mathrm{e}^{|t|^2},\mathrm{d}t$
differentiation making sense is a way stronger regularity condition on functions
integration making sense is basically true for any function that isnt bullshit
@EricSilva But even when you have as much regularity as you could ever want, integration can be impossible
like, why is $\int \sqrt{1-t^4}, \mathrm{d}t$ so hard?
integration in the sense of finding antiderivatives i guess
I am not sure how elementary function is defined ?
16:45
it's weird tho cuz numerically integrating is easy
Integration in the sense of finding definite integrals can also be quite hard
@MatheinBoulomenos i mean symbolically this is very frequently the problem of either finding a trick or finding an antiderivative
both of which can be arbitrarily hard
Can I actually think ODE as kind of discretization scheme of the solution, which converges to the originial solution?
i dont understand what that means
For example, $x'(t)=f(x)$, then the left hand side can be thought of $lim \frac{x(t+\delta)-x(t)}{\delta}$ and this is kind of discretization scheme of $x(t)$ as $x(\delta)=x(t)+\delta f(x(t))$
16:54
@BalarkaSen I heard a talk about Quillen K-theory, I thought you might find that interesting
@quallenjäger Ehh sure I guess
You're really thinking of a difference equation, not a ODE, then. I mean that's like a discrete dynamical version of an ODE
@MatheinBoulomenos What's a Quillen K-theory?
Ok but in limit, this difference equation converges to the ODE?
pointwise or uniform?
@BalarkaSen it's basically algebraic K-theory, but the construction is more general than that
it doesn't only work for rings
@Mathein I see
What you do at least for rings is that you start with a ring R, then you look at the category of finitely generated projective modules over R, then you turn that into another category which is complicated to define, then you take the nerve of that category, which gives you a simplical set, then you take the geometric realization of that which gives you a (giant) CW-complex, then you take the homotopy groups of that and that's the K-groups of R for you
16:59
Oh that is a cool construction
it's quite remarkable that you start with an algebraic object and end with an algebraic object, but you pass through a topological space at some point
Well the category of f.g. projective modules over R is like the category of vector bundles over a space
I'd like to see the intermediate algebraic object (the category you say is complicated to define)
Okay suppose that we have an exact category C, i.e. an additive full subcategory of an abelian category that is closed under extensions
that basically allows us to talk about exact sequences in C, although C itself doesn't have to be abelian
exact sequences in C are exact sequences in the surrounding abelian category such that all the terms are in C
we call a monomorphism/epimorphisms admissable if we have an exact sequence in C such that they are the first or the last term, respectively
17:04
@MatheinBoulomenos mmk
Basically, combinations of +,-,x,/,exponentition,logarithms,trig
@Balarka Keyword Q-construction
@Tuki I read about this recently. It is cool.
yes, that's basically what I'm describing
In QC you take the objects of C but a morphism from X to Y is a triangle X <- Z -> Y, where X <- Z is an admissable epi and Z -> Y is an amissable mono
and then you compose these triangles by taking pullbacks
Have you read about RSA as well? It's a very similar idea and also cool @Tuki
17:06
yes i have @AkivaWeinberger
thats a strange category
"transversally orientable" <--- what might this mean (when describing a surface)?
Hi chat!
Hi @BAYMAX
@anakhronizein Prolly that it's co-orientable (ie admits an orientable normal bundle)
17:09
I had a question which I ma not sure of answer exists or not:)
Does bounded derivative imply continuous derivative?
like the average of the distance of any two points inside a square?
Because, by Darboux-Theorem, if the derivative is not continuous, at least one side limit does not exists.
Is there any counter example to bounded derivative but not continuous derivative?
when you take R to be the ring of (real or complex) continuous functions on a compact Hausdorff space, you get the topological K-theory. (This is probably an application of Serre-Swan at some point)
Yup, category of fg projective C(X)-modules is isomorphic to the category of vbs over X
where X is cpt hsdrf
il spk lk ths frm nw on
17:14
@BalarkaSen my health deteriorates by the moment
@BalarkaSen thanks, that was my first guess but then he kept on using it despite co-orientable being a thing.
@dmnrk i hp u gt wl sn
Hi @Daminark
For Dedekind domains you get some exact sequences that arise from a bunch of category theory that is done just to give you some homotopy fibrations at the point before you take the homotopy groups
How's it going Mathein?
these exact sequences are really non-obvious even for the low-degree K-groups which you can define algebraically
Fine, thanks. I'm having exams soon. How are you doing?
17:18
@MikeMiller So I proved that for differentiable functions $f : S^1 \to S^1$ with $f'$ of bounded variation, if the suspension foliation of $f$ in $S^1 \times S^1$ has no compact leaves, has to be topologically conjugate to rotation by an irrational angle.
Midterm season is coming but otherwise well
This shows that the Denjoy blowup cannot be done $C^1$-ly in particular
in the seminar, it takes like over 3 hours of lemmas about category theory to get to these fibrations
Which we wondered about a year ago
ooooh cool
17:23
hey @AkivaWeinberger
Are you doing well? Applying to Uni yet?
in fact i am applying to uni
or at least trying ^^
hmm can you compute derivatives numerically ?
or more like compute limits numerically ?
17:40
Hi @Ted
Hey @Ted
Hey Ted!
waves vigorously
@quallenjäger: Bounded derivative needn't imply $C^1$, no. Take the usual $x^2\sin(1/x)$ example on $[-1,1]$.
17:41
hey @Ted
Howdy @Balarka, Demonark, Tuki.
@Tuki not really
you mean rigorously, @Balarka?
consider $\sin{x}$ as $x$ increases without bound
I only handwave
Not rigorously
17:42
Please tell me the mathjax code for single bond on Chemistry.se.
not only does it not exist, but it is not computable either
@Abcd no
go ask on chemistry
:p
hmm
yes this is what i thought
@Tuki a naive model of a hypercomputer would likely be a computer that can compute any limit.
@TheGreatDuck no body's online there... that's the problem
17:44
@Abcd well then google latex for that.
hi @TedShifrin
mathjax is just latex formatting
in your browser
as soon as u come, we all bombard you with questions, XD @TedShifrin
I'm hiding.
Hi, DogAteMy.
17:46
if two functions' derivatives are linearly independent, then are the original functions?
@GPhys Yeah, I got into Yale
How have you been?
nope, but I'm nearby (I'm at NYU now for my PhD)
Ah
I'm in Manhattan right now
waves
@TedShifrin apparently there was a misunderstanding or a change of topics on the projective geometry seminar. They changed the title from "classical projective algebraic geometry" to "classical projective geometry" and the announcement says that they're doing stuff like quadrics, cross-ratios, Pappus's theorem, Desargues's theorem and "weak Bezout theoerem", whatever that means
@Akiva Hm, why are you still in high school if you got into Yale?
17:47
No varieties, I'm disappointed
@AkivaWeinberger light waves back. Note: digital signals are light.
Is it some phase difference between the first semester?
Ah, that's far more elementary, Mathein. I have most of that stuff in Chapter 8 of my Algebra book, and have taught a good deal of it the last month of my algebra course.
…I have to graduate first?
DogAteMy: Most probably not, actually :P
17:48
Oh you can apply to schools before graduating high school?
Yeah, I might not take the seminar
@BalarkaSen Everyone does
You always apply a year early, Balarka. Same for grad school.
0
Q: Are two functions $f$ and $g$ with linear independent derivatives neccessarily linearly independent and vice versa?

The Great DuckSuppose that there exists functions $f$ and $g$ defined on the real numbers and differentiable everywhere. If their derivatives $f'$ and $g'$ are linearly independent on some nonzero interval then are $f$ and $g$ linearly independent on the same interval? Similarly if $f$ and $g$ are linearly ind...

That's not how it works over here
17:48
I mean, you apply December to start the following September.
So you have a dead year?
the answer was in an earlier version but I changed it to better capture what i intended
Here you don't apply (or can't apply) before you finished high school
i think the answer still works but im having a hard time interpreting it.
for the bachelor, every uni here takes math students anyway, assuming your high school grades are not terrible
Well no the high school finals are in like the end of March/beginning of April, the university/college admissions are a month of two after that, and the first semester starts at August/September
17:49
So is acceptance immediate within a month? Here it takes months, and then you have to get ready to move miles away.
Oh, so things happen way fast. But in the US acceptance drags on for months (some students have to wait 'til the very deadline to hear from the school they want).
Yeah it's too fast
There are certain majors/university combinations that just automatically accept everyone who meets the criteria, math is typically one of them, at least for the bachelor
There is the phenomenon of "senioritis" where after getting accepted students kinda stop caring about school
for medicine or psychology, it can be difficult to get accepted
I mean, we still have to not fail, but still
17:52
US is just totally different. Most students don't know their major when they apply to college. Those that do most often change a few times.
We don't have to try über-hard
(My experience teaching the calculus theory courses was that typically the kids who came in saying they wanted to major in math were not as strong as the ones who ultimately switched to math during or after my courses.)
@AaronHall hello. I'm not causing any problems, am I?
by posting my question?
There are quite a bit of students switching subjects here, too
especially in the first years between physics and math or something like that
@TedShifrin I added a Math major but I've never switched from my original. It does amaze me how many people have been here for at least 6 or 7 years and still not graduating.
17:54
Senioritis is not uncommon, DogAteMy. I expect it's worse than usual at your school because it's such a pressure cooker.
BTW, @Balarka, do you know how to do this correctly?
Whether I actually care about the grades themselves is irrelevant. I like the material to such a degree that I'd probably have to intentionally fail to do bad.
well aside from the one class where the professor gave a 200 problem exam (an exaggeration but it was ridiculously overkill; only one student managed to finish it with more than a 70%).
and almost got fired
one of my friends started studying in math in Heidelberg and then his plan was literally to transfer exactly to that university where his girlfriend got accepted for French-German studies, because you can get into math anywhere here, unlike French-German studies apparently (also his grades were really good)
But I assume some unis are way stronger in math than others, Mathein.
yeah, but he wanted to live with his girlfriend
17:58
uuuh
and it doesn't matter that much for the bachelor
I guess that's fair if there's not a notable quality difference
if he is doing very good then he should stay where he will do the best he can
We have a variety V in the projective plane defined by the polynomial Y^2Z - X^3 - Z^3, is the mapping from V to the projective plane defined by [x:y:z] -> [x^2:xy:z^2] a morphism? The only troubling point is [0:1:0]...
sacrificing his education for that is a bad idea
unless they're getting married or something

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