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14:05
boi Tame Impala is so bad and corny it makes me puke
this is like pop rock on LSD
this is what I call psychedelic rock
rattle schnek boiz
@Semiclassical I'm doing my e&m pset rn and still very not used to physics yet
It's like almost like doing math but also it's kind of not like doing math
So weird
@BalarkaSen ahh
Sounds right
14:39
Hello everyone
I have a soft question, regarding studying process, can anyone help?
14:52
im fairly sur ei have this order right PID's ED's UFD's
all PID are ED's but not all ED's are PID's
so no
@MatheinBoulomenos i probably wouldn't understand any current research in the area but im fine with like the latest and greatest from 50 years ago kind of thing,
Guys, what do you do when you stumble upon a problem you cannot solve? Especially when it's from a handbook, and you cannot proceed without
15:18
i stare at it for awhile
if its for hw thats due in a finite amount of time i will eventually ask for help
if its just an exercise i may leave it until i get it on my own
start by reviewing the definitions in the related section thats always a good place.
16:03
@Faust the other way around
16:21
@faust, what do you do meanwhile
16:39
Hey guys! Can anyone confirm if my following thinking is correct? : Start with the most simple normal subgroup, the trivial subgroup, then the second you add a non-trivial element you have to include all of its conjugacy class for the subgroup to remain normal.
@AlessandroCodenotti thank you! :)
Define $d : \bigwedge^* (\Bbb R^3) \to \bigwedge^* (\Bbb R^3)$ a linear map that sends $\bf v \mapsto \bf v \wedge (e_1 + e_2 + e_3)$. This gives the following exact sequence: $$0 \longrightarrow \Lambda^0 (\Bbb R^3) \overset d \longrightarrow \Lambda^1 (\Bbb R^3) \overset d \longrightarrow \Lambda^2 (\Bbb R^3) \overset d \longrightarrow \Lambda^3 (\Bbb R^3) \longrightarrow 0$$
It resembles the de Rham complex of $\Bbb R^3$
@BalarkaSen @MatheinBoulomenos
also, the three maps in the middle resemble grad curl div
Seems as if you’d have the same thing if you replaced e1+e2+e3 with just e1
You can define a chain complex on forms by defining your $d$ operator as $d\omega = \omega \wedge \eta$ for some chosen $1$-form $\eta$. It wouldn't be a very interesting chain complex; as you said, it's an exact sequence, so has homology 0. Boo.
16:49
I feel like I brought this up a looong time ago
You did
:)
De Rham is my school's mascot
Wait, no, it's just "Ram"
1 min ago, by Semiclassical
Seems as if you’d have the same thing if you replaced e1+e2+e3 with just e1
but they won't resemble grad curl div
I wonder what the sequences look like if $\eta$ is not a 1-form. You would break exactness then
In any case this doesn't seem very interesting or natural
DISAPPOINTED
16:53
@BalarkaSen you would break the codomain
Just shift degree up
sent Omega^i to Omega^(i+k)
then where is the sequence
it's still a complex though, since x wedge v wedge v = x wedge 0 = 0
Omega^1 --> Omega^k --> Omega^2k --> ... you dumbo
yes it is a chain complex that's why i suggested it
exact chain complexes are boring as fuck boi
wait
v wedge v doesn't need to be 0, if v isn't a 1-form
so, omae wa mou shindeiru
take it to be odd graded
then it holds
16:57
mmhmm
but the main point is that it looks like grad curl div
That does not seem like a very interesting description to me
If you have something resembling the de Rham chain complex you should have nonzero homology.
In this case you don't so it's all bull
the discussion I'm thinking back to starts around here:
Jun 23 '17 at 4:24, by Semiclassical
Had a diff. forms question which I wondered if you'd know the answer to. (It's a terminology question more than anything)
how's the wind chill factor?
Pretty brutal
breaking any records?
17:02
it went from 60 to 11 in a day here what is this
@Semiclassical nice
@MatheinBoulomenos (or anyone) so Hom(-,B) is contravariant in the category of modules. Hom preserves limits, so does that means it preserves finite products?
Hello @LeakyNun!
;-; Nobody knows better ways than by-hand search of natural numbers ;-;
2
Hello
Can somebody give me a quick hint? I want to show, that a complex number has exactly $n$ disctinct roots. I've shown that $\sqrt[n]{w} = \sqrt[n]{r}e^{i\frac{\theta + 2\pi k}{n}}$ with $0 \le k \le n-1$ are roots. But how can I show that they are distinct?
17:27
@Mr.Xcoder grade 7?
12 year olds?
@skullpatrol Yes.
@skullpatrol 13
0
Q: Implicit solution to first degree ODE

Rubén TobarIm a bit confused. Lets take $$\begin{cases} y\, y'=-x\\ y(0)=1 \end{cases}$$ Does this equation have as solution: the whole circle $x^2+y^2=1$ or just the positive part $y(x)=\sqrt{1-x^2}$?

Is the whole circle the solution or just the sqrt?
@philmcole their Args are different
@LeakyNun Ok, it's not possible, that two of them have the same arg for different $k$?
ja genau
17:42
one way to see what's happening is to assume that two such roots are actually the same, i.e. $\sqrt[n]{r}e^{i(\theta+2\pi k_1)/n}=\sqrt[n]{r}e^{i(\theta+2\pi k_2)/n}$
if you divide both sides by the right-hand side, you get $e^{i 2\pi (k_1-k_2)/n}=1$
But when does a complex exponential equal 1?
(If you're not sure, think in terms of Euler's formula.)
@Rick Won't the solution be unique on the open interval $(-1,1)$?
@Semiclassical if the arg is zero and therefore $k_1=k_2$. Thanks!
Write $f(x,y) = -x/y$. Clearly $f$ and $\partial f /\partial y$ are continuous on the rectangle $(-1,1) \times (0,1+\delta)$ which contains $(0,1)$. Then your solution is unique on an interval $(-\epsilon, \epsilon) \subset (-1,1)$
@philmcole not quite. You could also have $e^{2\pi i}=1$
@philmcole Think of the unit circle :)
17:53
@Semiclassical then if it's an integer multiple of $2 \pi$?
$2 \pi i$
But that implies that $k_1-k_2$ is an integer multiple of $n$
and what did you assume about k1, k2?
That they are smaller or equal to $n-1$.
@Rick My point is, you can't allow $-\sqrt{1-x^2}$ since your solution to the IVP is unique
17:55
@Semiclassical and positive
@philmcole Also $k_1 \neq k_2$ I would imagine
Then together $k_1 = k_2 l n$ for some positive integer $l$, but $k_1 \le n-1$, so a contradiction.
hello, what is the method to find the adherent value of $w_n=\sin(n\pi/2)\sin(n\pi/2)$ on (R,|.|) ? please
another point is that, if both of them are drawn from 0 through n-1, then the farthest they could possibly be apart is n-1. so the only way they can differ by a multiple of n is if they're actually equal, and therefore not distinct roots
Yeah, true! Thank you. I see it now more clearly :)
17:58
@AkivaWeinberger hello
Hi
I have no idea what an "adherent value" is
@LeakyNun preserving limits means a different thing for contravariant functors. $\operatorname{Hom}(-,X)$ turns colimits into limits
the limit of the sequence or the limit of subsequences @AkivaWeinberger
@MatheinBoulomenos yes, that's what I mean
yes, that's true and it follows from the covariant case. $\operatorname{Hom}_C(-,X) = \operatorname{Hom}_{C^{op}}(X,-)$
18:05
@MatheinBoulomenos how do you prove that it preserves limits?
wait, it's a functor to itself o.O
well, $\operatorname{Hom}(X,-)$ preserves limits basically by definition of a limit
not sure what you mean by "a functor to itself"
4
Q: Solve $(y+ x^3y + 2x^2)dx + (x + 4xy^4+ 8y^3)dy = 0$

user481779Basically I tried to group the terms ydx + xdy is a perfect differential but I couldn't think a method for ($x^3$y)dx + (4x$y^4$)dy . Also dividing by xy didn't help me.

What about cases like this ? @Lozansky
@MatheinBoulomenos hmm...
The isomorphism $\varprojlim \operatorname{Hom}(X, X_i) \cong\operatorname{Hom}(X, \varprojlim X_i)$ works as follows: if you're given a set of maps that define a cone over $\varprojlim \operatorname{Hom}(X,X_i)$, the universal property of the limit (i.e. the definition) gives you a map $\operatorname{Hom}(X, \varprojlim X_i)$
Hi @Ted
Hi @Mathein, Leaky, DogAteMy
18:11
Hi @Ted
oh, and hi @Balarka
For the other direction you just compose with your morphism $\varprojlim X_i \to X_i$ for every $i$
@Rick Eh not too sure about uniqueness/existence on nonlinear DEs
are you there @AkivaWeinberger?
18:12
the uniqueness part of the universal property gives you that these are inverse bijections
I need to go now, sorry @Vrouvrou
@MatheinBoulomenos so it works in every category?
:o
even if we define Hom differently?
18:14
well, I'm assuming your Hom is always a set
like for modules, Hom is equipped with the structure of a module
@Rick Nevermind, if you write it like $dy/dx = f(x,y)$ you can just apply the existence/uniqueness theorem
@TedShifrin bon soir, savez vous comment on fait pour obtenir les valeurs d'adherences de $w_n=\sin(n\pi/2)\sin(n\pi/2)$ sur (R,|.|) ?
@Vrouvrou: Alors, quel est le valeur de $w_n$, exactement?
So if you have an initial value $y(x_0) = y_0$ and can find a rectangle $(a,b) \times (c,d)$ which contains $x_0, y_0$ and where $\partial f /\partial y$ and $f$ are continuous, then you for sure have a unique solution on some subset $(x_0-\epsilon, x_0 +\epsilon) \subset (a,b)$, @Rick
18:18
ca depend de n, si n=0, pi, pi/2,...
@TedShifrin
Oui, je sais. Mais dites-moi les valeurs ...
@Vrouvrou n n'est pas entier?
je n'ai pas calculer
I know that the product of two normal topological spaces is generally not normal, but are there any conditions on the two spaces that will guarantee that the product is normal?
18:19
@Lozansky @Rick: It seems to me that in the implicit case we're talking about flows of vector fields, not solutions for ODEs of functions.
@LeakyNun ah oui c vrai n est dans N
Hi @AlUssandro
@Vrouvrou alors quels sont les valeurs possibles?
@LeakyNun no wait, I've been talking nonsense. What I said holds for limits in the category of sets. As the forgetful functor $R-\mathbf{Mod} \to \mathbf{Set}$ is conservative (=reflects isomorphisms) and preserves limits (but not colimits), you can conclude that it holds in $R-\mathbf{Mod}$ as well (and likewise for rings, groups, etc. (not fields though))
I blame that on my phone's keyboard and my big hands!
18:20
not fields?
isn't a field just another ring?
no, the category of fields is really strange
@user193319: I don't know a necessary condition, but certainly it works if they're metrizable, for example.
I was talking about the respective categories
In that case the product is even metrizable. Works with countably many spaces too
@TedShifrin Ah! Yes! That's all I need. Thanks!
18:22
I just found out today that there those things called ultrametric spaces
@MatheinBoulomenos oh, lol
@TedShifrin In that case, I'm way out of my depth
can you give me an example how it doesn't preserve limits in fields? @MatheinBoulomenos
But see this, for example. Product of metric and normal needn't be normal.
@Lozansky @Rick: I think the point in your question is to tell when such a 1st order ODE $M\,dx + N\,dy=0$ is exact or has an integrating factor. That's a different flavor question.
@Alessandro: When do you retake your test? I need to know when to go back to hiding.
a lot of limits in the category of fields don't even exist
18:24
I don't know yet, haven't been driving in a while
I'm dealing with math tests in uni for the time being
I'm dealing with $\sum_{k=0}^K a_{k,K}$ where $a_{k,K}$ are nonnegative. Suppose I know that all $a_{k,K}\propto K^{1/2+\delta}$, $\delta\geq 0$, terms are dominated by something summable and that those $a_{k,K}\to 0$ as $K\to\infty$. Hence, I'd like to show that $\sum_{k=0}^{?} a_{k,K} \sim \sum_{k=0}^{\infty} a_{k,K}$, where in the first sum the upper limit is "up to order $K^{1/2}$".
How to do that formally with the dominated convergence theorem (to show that the rest of the series is zero) when there is no first term of $K^{1/2}$ order? A verbal argument perhaps is enough?
So field theory is weird in both math and physics
@Ted I tried to write an h-principles answer to the dz = xdy question you answered earlier
can't say I'm surprised
I flailed
18:25
OK, whew, @Alessandro. I'm safe for a while, then ;)
Yup, got to think about functional analysis and commutative algebra now
Interesting @Balarka. But it's exactly this sort of non-integrable thing you were convincing me you could do?
@TedShifrin Originally, the question was if the solution to $yy' = -x, y(0)=1$ is valid for the whole unit circle or just the positive part $y=\sqrt{1-x^2}$
@Semiclassical not really. It's just that if you apply category theory naively to fields, then you get strange phenomena. I'd say field theory on its own is not that weird (but I'm an algebraist, so maybe I'm just weird myself)
@Alessandro what are you doing in commutative algebra right now?
@Lozansky: Right. Well, that's phrase specifically in terms of differentiable function $y=y(x)$ ... It's not written as an implicit ODE $x\,dx + y\,dy=0$. For the latter, I would say that circles centered at the origin are the solution curves.
18:27
@TedShifrin Not really. What I can give you is a curve joining $(0, 0, 0)$ and $(x, y, z)$ which is $\epsilon$-close to being tangent to the distribution $D$, for arbitrarily small choice of $\epsilon$.
But that works for any non-vertical distribution $D$ whatsoever
Oh, right, @Balarka. Can you prove that the achievable endpoints form an open/closed set or not?
@MatheinBoulomenos nothing new, the course has ended, I need to study for the exam
There is something special about this specific distribution that upgrades $\epsilon$-tangency to actual tangency
Right.
18:28
Eric and I were having conversations about it.
I think it relates to the fact that there is no h-principle for Lagrangian submanifolds, even though there is an h-principle for epsilon-Lagrangian submanifolds
I'll need to learn more symplectic/contact geometry to be able to see this
In general, it probably depends on how many iterated brackets it takes to generate everything.
This is sub-Riemannian geometry ... (I got the name screwed up yesterday.)
mm true
@Balarka: So I was going to write something on this question. But what's the least fancy way to argue that a line bundle on a manifold is trivial iff its restriction to the $1$-skeleton is trivial? No characteristic classes ...
Give a cell decomposition, and extend the trivial line bundle on the 1-skeleton over the 2-cells, and so on, I think
The obstruction theory argument, but parsed elementarily
There should be something easier.
Like the orientation-reversing loop argument ...
Warlock is comfortable with smooth manifolds, not with topology.
18:34
Hm.
He wants to go directly to $n$-forms, which isn't going to work. But just working with the line bundle $\Lambda^n T^*M$ should suffice.
So the usual monodromy argument should prove that if $\mathscr L|_Y$ trivial for every embedded circle $Y$, then $\mathscr L$ is trivial on $M$.
Right. I guess what you should be able to do is to say $Y$ is homotopic to some loop on the 1-skeleton
Over which $\mathscr{L}$ trivializes...
@LeakyNun $0, 0,70..,0,-0,70,...$
@Vrouvrou? Comment?
@Vrouvrou quoi?
18:38
Hello nerds
Hi @Daminark
Hi.
@TedShifrin Give the line bundle a Riemannian metric; asking it's triviality is the same as asking whether the unit $S^0$-bundle (the double cover) is disconnected or not.
our algebra topology lecturer is a category theorist in disguise lol
2
sup chat
18:39
pour n paire w_n=0, pour n impaire w_n= (-1)^n (0,70)
@TedShifrin
Just need verification of my answer.
Give examples of two functions $f: N \to Z$ and $g: Z \to Z $ such that $g \circ f$ is injective but $g$ is not injective.
But since the cover is trivial over the 1-skeleton, any loop lifts trivially in the cover
My answer: $f(x)= \dfrac{1}{x}$ and $g(x)= x^2 $. I feel its correct.
Je ne comprends pas le $(0,70)$?
18:40
racine(2)/2
@Abcd: Domains and ranges don't match.
@TedShifrin
(Take a loop $\gamma$ with basepoint $x_0 \in M^{(1)}$ on the 1-skeleton; $\gamma$ is homotopic to a loop $\gamma'$ in $M^{(1)}$, which lifts trivially in $\widetilde{M}$, hence so does $\gamma$)
That guarantees that the unit $S^0$-bundle is disconnected
Therefore the line bundle is trivial
@TedShifrin made a typing error. Edited.
They have just emailed me being like "Oh yeah please do these tasks on workday so we can pay you for grading discrete"
18:42
Your $f(x)$ doesn't take values in $\Bbb Z$, does it? @Abcd
@TedShifrin No
@Vrouvrou: La fonction est $(\sin(\pi n/2))^2$???
So make it way easier, @Abcd.
@Daminark i hated filling out workday stuff
heya @Antonios
If your function doesn't map to integers, then it's not an example of what you want.
18:43
they were way late on paying me for TAing cause the system is kinda dumb
@TedShifrin is my answer incorrect?'
oh yes.
Of course it's incorrect. Your function $f$ doesn't have values in $\Bbb Z$.
The codomain isn't Z, so nope
Lets say $f(x)= \mathbb{floor({x})}$
You could change the codomain (range) or you could change the function. As I said, you made it too hard.
So your $f$ is just the $0$ function?
I doubt $g\circ f$ will be injective, then.
@Abcd the idea is that you make the points where the injectivity of $g$ fails not be contained in the image of $f$
@Semiclassical Hey Semi, can you give me a hint how to show that $\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} e^{i\frac{2 \pi k}{n}} = 0$
Hush, @Mathein. Damn.
@TedShifrin now?
18:44
I was only giving a hint
@Abcd: So that's just $f(x)=x$?
yes, identity function.
Inclusion function.
@philmcole Let $\omega=e^{i 2\pi/n}$, so that your sum is $S=1+\omega+\omega^2+\cdots+\omega^{n-1}$ and $\omega^n=1$
Not quite identity because domain and codomain are different.
18:45
@philmcole just multiply your sum by something
Yes, then it works fine. That was what I had in mind for your easier example.
see what happens
We have people giving away too many hints here!
quite so
18:46
I can give you some audio-visual hints
Thanks guys I'll see where it gets me :D
pretty sure all of these count as 'visual' :P
@BalarkaSen zip zip ... zip back where u started
@Eric luckily I did do this before when I graded the REU first year, so the process took a couple minutes
that's good
18:47
Hint: pckotmp :flailing hands: flabbergastlybloof :sharp hand movement:
that's my hint to you
i did it over summer for bootcamp
@philmcole compute the field trace of $\omega$ wrt to the extension $\Bbb Q(\omega)/\Bbb Q$ (you can read that of the minimal polynomial)
my other hint would be: How does the center of mass of a wheel change as you turn it?
wow such symmetric
what if the wheel is really fucked
a dumpling shaped wheel
:3
18:50
@Balarka so it turns out my prof had in mind the norm based solution to the $\mathbb{Z}[\omega]$ business
@Daminark aha
What about the square wheel that rolls along a piecewise catenary path?
@TedShifrin Oh I love that
hate you alllll
3
18:51
@Semiclassic: I missed the question, but if we're asking about the sum of the vectors to the vertices of a regular $n$-gon ...
yeah. i wasn't being precise in my 'hint'
the computation is pchank pchankg pchang
floop and done
@Balarka we're not all fluent in topology
Tone it down to English for a moment
Prof @TedShifrin did you see Francis Su's joke on fb: 6,000 mathematicians at #JMM2018 walk into A-bar. The set A-bar says “Sorry, I’m closed.”
2
19:02
JMM must be fun
I am having dinners with people who are at it, but I'm not attending. Did see a bunch of people I knew downtown last night, though.
@TedShifrin $w_n=\sin(n\pi/4) \sin(n\pi/2)$
@Vrouvrou: Ça, ce n'est pas ce que tu avais écrit!!
@TedShifrin His "math flourishing" speech is going to be a book next year
19:04
Mais, tout de même, il faut explicitement trouver les valeurs et résoudre la question.
Je trouve 3 valeurs si n=2k, alors w_n=0, si n=2k+1, w_n=(-1)^k(racine(2)/2)
Hey @Ted!
It's been ages!
> Excited to announce that 'Mathematics for Human Flourishing', my speech at the Joint Mathematics Meetings last year, will be extended to a full-length book to be published by Yale University Press in 2019.
@skullpatrol Are you Francis Su?
19:11
@Semiclassical So I've used your hint and applied the geometric sum. This got me
$$\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} e^{i \frac{2 \pi k}{n}} = \sum_{k=0}^{n-1} \omega^k = \frac{1-w^n}{1-w} = \frac{1-e^{i 2 \pi}}{1-e^{i\frac{2\pi}{n}}} = \frac{1-1}{1-e^{i\frac{2\pi}{n}}} = 0$$

We can do this, because $\omega \neq 1$ because $n \ge 2 $ is given. Is this what you had in mind?
@Danu how goes the transition to pure math pal?
Is that speech not by Francis Su? (cf. this blog mathyawp.wordpress.com/2017/01/08/…)
9 mins ago, by skullpatrol
@TedShifrin His "math flourishing" speech is going to be a book next year
I was giving evidence :P
Ah, you forgot to put the other post in a quotation. Do you know how to do that?
(I can do it for you if you like---it might not be possible to edit anymore for you)
please do
19:14
Done.
thanks pal
his prison inmate story is awsome
Chris White volunteered some time to teach inmates Physics and Math.
19:28
@philmcole yeah
a very similar idea is to note that $\omega^n=1$ implies $$1+\omega+\cdots+\omega^{n-1}=\omega^n+\omega+\cdots+\omega^{n-1}=\omega(1+ \omega+\cdots +\omega^{n-1})$$
So the sum is unchanged upon multiplying by $\omega$. Only way this can happen is if $\omega=1$ or the sum is zero, and we know it's not the first.
(This really isn't different from your argument: It amounts to the fact that $\omega^n-1=(\omega-1)(\omega^{n-1}+\cdots+\omega+1)=0$)
19:44
$n\ne1$
@Semiclassical I like that line of thought, it's so simple. Thanks!
to relate this to the wheel observation, consider the set of points (1,omega,omega^2,...,omega^n)
that's like a wheel with n equally spaced points on it. let me put masses there
if I rotate that wheel through 2pi/n, then the shape returns to itself
What do you mean by the shape returns to itself?
Take a wheel with spokes.
If I turn it by the right amount, then each spoke moves to the same place as another was
so I can't tell the rotated wheel apart from the original one
19:59
Ah because the $n-1$th becomes the first one again, meaning $e^{i\frac{2\pi (n-1)}{n}}$ becomes $e^{i\frac{2\pi (n-1)+2\pi}{n}} = e^{i\frac{2\pi n}{n}} = e^{i 2 \pi} = 1$
Beautiful geometrical thinking!
I would have never thought of connecting this with the above sum.
But it's beautiful indeed.
in math language there's a Z/n action on the nth roots of unity
anyways. symmetry is fun
What's a Z/n action?
"In mathematics, an action of a group is a formal way of interpreting the manner in which the elements of the group correspond to transformations of some space in a way that preserves the structure of that space."
so all I really mean is that multiplying by $\omega$ shifts all the exponents up by one taken mod n
20:04
Is that group theory?
Cool
we didn't have this yet
I'll keep this in mind though
Thanks again for the help!
Why is number of binary operations given by $n^{n^2}$?
on a set with $n$ elements...
20:18
how many possibilities are there for each pair?
possibilities of?
If you want to define a binary operation $\star$, how many possibilities do you have to define $x \star y$ for each pair of elements $(x,y)$ from your set?
Are you sure?
so every pair has two possibilities..
the binary operation may be defined on it or not...
A binary operation is always defined for every element
I meant how many possible values can you give to $x \star y$
You mean the range of the function?
it's $1 $ to $n$.
20:24
right, so $n$ different values are possible for each pair
and there are $n^2$ pairs
is $(x,x)$ also a cartesian product pair?
i mean something like $(1,1)$. Is that included too?
but what does "number of binary operations" even mean?
I don't get it.
If $X$ is your set, then a binary operation is just a function $X \times X \to X$
For example, addition and multiplication are binary operations on $\Bbb N$
but we can define infinite functions...
20:31
not on a finite set
How?
If $X$ is finite, then so is $X \times X$
but we are talking about functions.
not sets.
If I have two finite sets $X$ and $Y$, then for every $y \in Y$, there are exactly $|X|$ possibilities for $f(y)$ and there are $|Y|$ elements in total
There can be infinite functions. for example I may define a new function $++$ which gives $x+1$
20:34
Okay, let's try a concrete example. If I have $X=Y=\{0,1\}$
yes..
then the only possible functions are $0 \mapsto 0,1 \mapsto 0$ and $0 \mapsto 0,1 \mapsto 1$ and $0 \mapsto 1, 1 \mapsto 0$ and $0 \mapsto 1, 1 \mapsto 1$
yes
so there are only 4 functions
right.
20:38
You can think as a binary operation on $\{1, \dots ,n\}$ as an $n\times n$ grid of numbers where each number is in $\{1, \dots ,n\}$
the entry in the $i$-th row and the $j$-th column tells you the value of the binary operation on the pair $(i,j)$
20:52
It is but a matrix :P
1
Q: The fundamental group of $S^3-S^1$

AmontilladoHow can I calculate the fundamental group of $S^3-S^1$? I believe it might be similar to the fundamental group of $S^2-S^0$ which is $ \Bbb Z$ but I'm having trouble showing it. Is this the right direction or am I way off?

@Daminark @MatheinBoulomenos

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