if $V=\bigoplus_{n\in\mathbb N}V_i$ and $\lambda:V\to V$ is multiplication by $\alpha^i$ on $V_i$, then each stable subspace is the direct sum of its intersections with the $V_i$.
the set of the equalities $\lambda^r w=\alpha^{i_1r}v_{i_1}+\cdots +\alpha^{i_1r}v_{i_k}$, with $r=0,\dots,k-1$ can be solved for the $v_i$ in terms of the $\lambda^r w$.
the general statement is: if $f:V\to V$ is a semisimple endomorphism, then for every $W\subseteq V$ which is $f$-invariant, we have $f:W\to W$ also semisimple
(your $\lambda$ is semisimple; in fact, diagonalizable)
@MarianoSuárezAlvarez I was surprised yesterday to find that in proving that if you have $0 \rightarrow M' \rightarrow M \rightarrow M'' \rightarrow 0$ exact and that $M' $ and $M''$ finitely generated means that $M$ is also, the proof was just using some basic knowledge of linear algebra!!
don't tell anyone, but everything is mostly linear algebra!
we talk about derived categories and such things only to confuse the analysts
(Some time ago, while discussing the complexity of the proof the Drozd's dichotomy theorem with a few people, a Russian guy in the group complained «but it is just linear algebra» with a dismissive tone only Russian mathematicians are able to get correctly :) )
@HenningMakholm I intend to let it ride for now, in case someone comes up with a particularly nice argument or exposition. Failing that, one of the answers to the question that you found is adequate.
people still work on the classification of pairs of matrices up to simultaneous conjugation, knowing that it is very very wild (in fact, wild means «at least as complicated as the classification of pairs of matrices up to simultaneous conjugation»)
I meant that it’s not a generally accepted convention. For instance, Engelking doesn’t use it, and neither does Willard. I don’t think that I’ve encountered it before,
if one has a commutative ring $R$ of endomorphisms of a complex vector space, it is a fact that all of the operators of $R$ share a common eigenvector. one can show this tediously by constructing, inductively, the common eigenvector. i would love to know a simpler existence proof. does anyone have any direction that i might pursue?
in order to find a common eigenvector, we can suppose inductively that no subspace of V is invariant under A — otherwise we just replace V by an invariant subspace and find a common eigenvector there
let a in A be non-zero and let lambda be an eigenvalue of a
since A is commutative, the subspace of V of eigenvectors of a is invariant under A
so it must coincide with V
in other words, a acts like multiplication by lambda
we see that every element acts by multiplication by a scalar
@MarianoSuárezAlvarez, so you are supposing that no subspace of $V$ is invariant under $A$, since if it were we could restrict ourselves to the invariant subspace and be done quickly
i don't understand the reduction then, if it doesn't use my argument. if $W$ is an $A$-invariant subspace, how do we find the common eigenvector in $W$?
I am proving the statement by induction on the dimension of V
that is, I am proving the statement P(n): «if V is non-zero and has dimension <=n and A is a commutative algebra of endomorphisms of V, there is a common eigenvector»
i have only seen inductive arguments of this sort of thing. i understand that constructive proofs are nice sometimes, but i'd rather have existence arguments for this kind of thing
I am not sure how to do this problem now since the book gives no examples of what to do for two different types of variables.
I have the integral
$$\int_{-2}^0(x^2+x)\,dx.$$
I know that $\Delta x = \frac{2}{n}$.
So now I have $\frac{2}{n}\left(-2 +\frac{2k}{n}\right)$
Then I put that into t...
to explain, what is going on in your question....shoot, i'd have to go over the entire basis of definition of the riemann integral, and it would take hours...and i can't draw pictures in this chat-room, at least not very well
proving a function is actually integrable can be a real chore....but IF a function is already KNOWN to be integrable (for example, if it is continuous on a closed interval [a,b]), we are free to use any "convenient" approximation...in this case, a "regular" partition of [-2,0] and using the value of f at the endpoints
@Jordan one should always keep in mind "where" a function is differentiable. for example the function $f(x) = 1/x$ is differentiable....EXCEPT at 0. the "exceptional points" have to be watched out for.
in the case of $f(x) = x^2 + x$, on the interval [-2,0] we are indeed in good shape.
@Jordan, well you asked how "coefficients affect the integral", that is the answer
It was exactly the same, he just had f(k/n) instead of $f(k\delta)$ in the first line. Literally the only thing he did was put a delta in the first line, but in the wrong spot.
(On that note, is it really wise to hammer on the Riemann definition for somebody who isn't looking to be studying analysis deeply? I don't get these nonspecialist calculus textbooks sometimes...)
@Jordan I doubt that it would do much except make you feel better: it’s been a pretty popular book (in several different versions) for many years now. Believe it or not, it’s actually one of the more readable standard calculus texts.
@Jordan: Did you figure out where your calculations went off in the $\int_{-2}^0(x^2+x)dx$ problem? Your $\frac83$ is part of the right answer, so you were probably doing at least part of it right.
@JM I recently finished doing it for the Bessel functions, which surprisingly (or unsurprisingly, as they're asymptotic) had the same Szego curve as the cosine.
@AntonioVargas Reminds me... I notice that your specialty is studying polynomial roots; have you had occasion to look at Bessel polynomials (related to, but aren't, Bessel functions)?
@JM Actually there was a paper a few years ago which studied them. I believe they used Riemann-Hilbert methods, which is apparently a really reliable approach for this problem for orthogonal polynomials. I've seen a few other papers for different families which use it.
@AntonioVargas That'd be cool (which I might look at again when I find more spare time); I had been working on this numerical method that kind of hinged on getting the roots accurately, but the zero-pattern is just rather unruly...
...and to segue slightly: the current level of activity on the front page scares me...
I think that you’re getting a bit better. You’re setting these problems up properly now; you’re just having trouble keeping all of the calculations straight.
@Jordan It’s too bad that your school doesn’t have a free walk-in tutoring centre. Mine started one a few years before I retired, and it’s been a great success, both with students who just need it on rare occasions and with those who are in getting help almost every day.
My school does but it isn't very good, majority of the tutors are immigrants which isn't a problem but their accents are hard to understand especially for math
and then in general none of them really are that good at math anyways, they can do the problems but dont really understand the concepts
That can be a problem, yes. We were fortunate: we did have some foreign students tutoring, but they all had light accents, and most of our tutors were really quite good as tutors. Some were excellent.
(I know from first-hand experience: I used to hang out there and pitch in when it got busy.)
@AntonioVargas Ah, here: they are orthogonal with respect to the weight ${}_1 F_1\left({{1}\atop{\alpha+1}} \mid -\frac2{z}\right)$ with support over the unit circle.
@JM It doesn't look like the zeros of Bessel polynomials have been accurately located (aside from their limit curve). I was definitely mistaking Carpenter's paper for another one.
At least, that's what I gather. I have some papers which may be helpful but they're pretty impenetrable and I'm not sure if I want to inflict them on you.