I'm currently at a tiny little community college. Next semester I'll finish the calculus series, differential equations, and linear algebra. I'll be pretty much ready to transfer, except that most of universities I'd really like to go to only accept transfers during the fall.
There is a local state school nearby, but it's math department doesn't have the greatest reputation. I could begin my upper division coursework there, and then transfer to a major university next year, but I worry that by taking the most important classes like Real Analysis at a less rigorous school, I'll be setting myself up for a more difficult education down the road
So would it be a better idea to just take the next year off and self study?
It looks like they use a combination of Rudin/Bartle/Goldberg. Not sure which is the primary text. Would it hurt my chances of graduate school at all to have a "less prestigious" state school on my resume?
The math department at my school caters mainly to engineering/compsci majors, so its difficult to get information and advice regarding a career in math
It's not just a question of prestige. It's a question of the caliber of the students/faculty and what's expected of you in coursework. When I was Associate Department Head, I dealt with tons of transfer student issues. Typically, students who transferred serious math courses from lesser 4-year schools hadn't covered — or been pushed — comparably to courses at UGA. So it's a difficult question. But, generally, transfer students struggled in our upper-division curriculum.
@ted FYI, I'm comparing Sacramento State to UCD or UC Berkely, where I hope to end up eventually. From what I've heard, Sac State is definitely "less push" from what I've heard, but I guess the question is pretty situation-specific
@Cookie: Generally, my advice is that you're better off taking real math courses at real places. You need to be competing with more serious students than you would otherwise ... if you want to be serious.
Even for stuff like multivariable and linear algebra, Cookie, you should work on proofs (like with my books/videos) and deeper understanding.
@Ted And even then, I need to admit to myself that when I go through a series of your videos for example, though the lectures are quite rigorous and challenging, I'm not competing against anyone, and being physically in the lecture hall absolutely bring more competition and push me more
Well, I'm suggesting you practice doing some harder exercises and thinking about proofs in lectures — which you've never been exposed to. That's a reasonable first step that you can attain without external variables interfering.
There are some great people here to learn math from, too. They're young, but they've learned a lot.
@Eric one of the problems in the functional pset is to show that a normed space has a completion using the equivalence classes of Cauchy sequences... Welp
Suppose that $U_1, U_2$, and W are subspaces of a vector space V , and that $U_1 ⊕ W = U_2 ⊕ W$. Does it follow that $U_1 = U_2$? i want to say no but i cant think of a counter example
I think I found a "new" (in the sense that I didn't know it) "topological" proof that a Noetherian commutative ring has only finitely many minimal primes that avoids talking about irreducible components
topological as in I'm using the Zariski topology without the structure sheaf
Hmm. Well, every set is the union of its singleton subsets, right? So you could express (e.g.) the set of primes in $\mathbb{N}$ as the union of all singletons consisting of prime numbers. That would be an infinite subset of $\mathbb{N}$ which is a union of finite subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ but is not $\mathbb{N}$, no?
Let $R$ be a commutative Noetherian ring and $P$ be the set of minimal primes. Let $S=\displaystyle \cap_{\mathfrak{p}\in P} R\setminus \mathfrak{p}$ which is a multiplicatively closed subset. By some generalities on localizations and because $P$ consists of minimal prime ideals, $\operatorname{Spec}S^{-1}R$ is in an order-preserving bijection with $P$.
But the elements of $P$ don't have any non-trivial inclusions, thus every prime ideal of $S^{-1}R$ is maximal, thus $\operatorname{Spec}S^{-1}R$ is Hausdorff, but $S^{-1}R$ is also Noetherian as localization of a Noetherian ring, so $\operatorname{Spec}(S^{-1}R)$ is Noetherian
Now it remains to prove the purely topological fact that a Noetherian Hausdorff space is finite: in a Noetherian space, every subset is compact, but in a Hausdorff space, any compact subspace is closed, thus in a Noetherian Hausdorff space, every subspace is closed, thus it is discrete, thus finite by compactness
I was not sure if anyone was interested @AlexWertheim
Let X = N, the natural numbers and T be the collection of all subsets whose complement is finite and also ∅. Decide whether or not T is a topology on N.
I think the answer is no because clearly the set of integers bigger than or equal to 2 compliment is 1 and the compliment of N is null set but there intersection is is the number one and its compliment is infinite?
@Secret @LeakyNun pretty sure for the example I gave we can state that if C1(x) and C2(x) are never zero then there are no piecewise trivial solutions but that might be a bit premature
@AlexWertheim could i then talk about the finite union of finite sets is always finite and its compliment so its compliment is always infinite implying that a finite intersection of infinite sets whos compliment is finite is always infinite?
Only had a day of that as well, taught by the guy who's gonna do Galois theory, but it was pretty good. Though my actual algebra prof may assign psets which are... Less than fun
@Eric he's doing something different in commutative, the book has all the answers at the back so he'll assign some, but he said that most of the test will be from the book problems so he recommends solving them all anyway
@Faust: a lot of words in there, but you have the right idea. Another way of phrasing things, which you might like: for any subset $X$ of $\mathbb{N}$ with finite complement, there is an integer $n_{X} \in \mathbb{N}$ which is maximal among integers which are not in $X$.
Hence, if $X_{1}, \ldots, X_{k}$ are subsets of $\mathbb{N}$ with finite complement, then if $n$ denotes the maximum of $n_{X_{1}}, \ldots, n_{X_{k}}$, $n$ is the largest integer not in $X_{1} \cap \cdots \cap X_{k}$. Hence, the intersection has finite complement.
@Faust the introduction to abstract math class I had last spring literally used Z[sqrt{3}] as the subject of 75% of the proofs of the class. It exists.
So for some context, I was in a proof writing class a couple months back. I really liked it and did quite well, but midway through the course we were doing things regarding the norm of these other kinds of integers (elements of $\textbf{Z}[\sqrt{3}]$). Basically things like the fact that there is...
to be fair, you might study some properties of $\Bbb Z[\sqrt{3}]$ in other classes, but if you want to study similar rings systematically, then that's done in algebraic number theory
I didn't know commutative algebra has a bad reputation
@Mathein: maybe it doesn't. Over the years, I've heard various people (jokingly) poke fun at how ugly and difficult it can be, but I don't think any of it is too serious.
Commutative algebra is at least from my experience really beautiful and useful (depending on what you do, of course). I'd rate the hours that I spent doing exercises in Atiyah-Macdonald and Matsumura among the most fun and instructive
Now, because the time travel involves a trajectory moving towards a null line, $d_1 = 2$ and $d_2$ is a zero divisor of $\pi$. The result is the logical paradox $\pi = 0$
The paradox is then resolved by incoporating signed distance to indicated travelling forward and travelling back. This results in $d_1,d_2=6,15$ and thus there are no more logical paradox
Main point: There are zero divisors of transcendentals in last night dream
I wonder what important rings has that property...
@Typhon check if the trivial solution is also the solution of the ordinary diff eqt . The existence of $C_1 (x) = C_2(x) = 0$ to the implied DE could mean the trivial solution is indeed a solution
I'm having a really tough time with an exercise from Spivak's Calculus on Manifolds. It's asking to show that there are no injective $C^1$ maps from $R^n$ into $R^m$ when $m<n$. It's a pretty straightforward application of the inverse function theorem, but only so long as I know that the partials $D_jf_i$ for $n-m+1 \leq j \leq n$ and $1 \leq i \leq m$ form a non-singular matrix at least at one point. This is tricky and I'm having difficulties.
Not looking for a solution. Maybe a nudge in the right direction. Also, I'm trying not to appeal to any fancy theorems. I'm trying to stick to the sequence of the book.
I'm not sure if I understand. Perhaps I misused the term singular, but I simply meant that the determinant is nonzero. I'm not sure how that applies in general cases since $n$ need not be the same as $m$, so I'm not sure if there's some generalization of the determinant that works on non-square matrices. The other thing though, is that technically the matrix that needs to be non-singular is a square matrix ($m\times m$).