If $x\neq 0$ and if $x^2$ is rational, then $(\forall k\in\mathbb{Q}\setminus\{0,-1,-2,\ldots\}):f_k(x)\neq0\text{ and }\frac{f_{k+1}(x)}{f_k(x)}\notin\mathbb{Q}.$
If $(\exists k\in\mathbb{Q}\setminus\{0,-1,-2,\ldots\}):f_k(x)=0\text{ or }\frac{f_{k+1}(x)}{f_k(x)}\in\mathbb{Q}$
, then $x=0$ or if $x^2$ is irrational @TedShifrin