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15:00
Sounds like diffing wrt z does give you the third thing
So that's it?
Yeah I got it that's where the $\frac12e^{z^2}$ bit came from
Now to actually integrate it on that path, I need to identify its endpoints
Ya
And plug it in
subtract
boom
:exploding noises:
It starts at $\begin{bmatrix}1\\-1\\0\end{bmatrix}$ and ends at $\begin{bmatrix}e\\2\\1\end{bmatrix}$ I think
And, tell you what, I'm not actually gonna finish this problem
'cause I'm essentially done
and the last step is boring
:p
I never did it because I knew how to do it
I'm doing it because I didn't know how to do it :P
For some reason I thought it wasn't closed (and thus not exact)
But it turns out everything's fine
15:04
If it wasn't closed you'd be flubberducked
Maybe try to break up into an exact and a smaller non-exact part
Yeah
But then again, the path was horrible
So, hold on, was it $ydx-xdy$ that gives you the area?
Yeah $\iint 1 dydx$ and then use Green's theorem
This corresponds to the vector field $(y,-x)=R_{90^\circ}(x,y)$
The thing that points counterclockwise everywhere
So whenever I move a particle in that field, the area of its path is the work done to it by that field? Weird
Wait no, it's $\frac12{ydx-xdy}$
15:06
Wait, $xdy$ gives you area, right?
Yeah that works too
Right, so $ydx$ and $-xdy$ work on their one
I guess I see how $(y,0)$ gives you the area (in terms of the work analogy)
Still frickin' weird
Kinda.
But like, moving it horizontally gives you the area under that horizontal line
and moving it vertically gives you the area under the vertical line (i.e. 0)
So if you add it up for a rectangle it works
And most things are almost lots of rectangles
Take a point $(a, b)$ and feed $ydx - xdy$ the vector $(v_1, v_2)$. That spits out $bv_1 - av_2$. That's a determinant, right?
Uhh
15:10
I want to say it's locally volume
It's det[b, a; v_2, v_1]
Hm
So 1-forms are vector fields. I'm guessing 2-forms are "little plane thing" fields, but I didn't get that from his introduction of them
Well, no, 1-forms are dual to vector fields
They eat vector fields
But there's a natural correspondence between them
If I try to draw a 1-form I only know how to draw its corresponding vector field
Sure, the zero set of the 1-form is your vector field (on the plane, at least. On R^n zero set of the 1-form is a codimension 1 plane field)
And that's where things get icky. Not all plane fields come from a 1-form
15:13
Maybe I'm wrong. Wait
Wait, when he said integrating 1-forms is like work from vector fields, that worked in any dimension
Ok, I'm wrong. You need to choose a Riemannian metric to construct the 1-form from the plane field, though, I think.
Yeah, that's how it works. If you have a codimension 1 plane field $E$ on a manifold $M$, give it a Riemannian metric to have it's orthogonal line field $E^\perp$
Consider the orthogonal projection $T_x M \to E^\perp_x$ for each point $x \in M$
OK hold on
That is a 1-form at $x$ which vanishes on $E_x$
Are we not doing subsets of $\Bbb R^n$ anymore
15:17
So that gives a 1-form with zero set $E$ on $M$.
And do we not get plane fields (if that's the right word) for 2-forms?
@Akiva Yeah I'm thinking generally. Sorry for the tangents.
@AkivaWeinberger Say you have the 1-form $dz$ on $\Bbb R^3$
@MarkLStone damnit, that was actually the cause of the problem. I've feeling silly for overlooking that
It's zero set is the "horizontal plane field" always parallel to $xy$.
$\Bbb R^3$ is a very specific Euclidean space, so there is in fact a canonical correspondence between 1-forms and vector fields on $\Bbb R^3$ (take the line field perpendicular to the zero set of it, which is a 2-plane field)
Sure, and the same for $\Bbb R^n$ in general
15:21
Ah, well, true. :P
i an cold
I was thinking of 2-forms on $\Bbb R^4$
In which there is no way to get a vector field into the story
2-forms in $\Bbb R^3$ do correspond to vector fields though
(Zero set is a line field)
The zero set of 2-forms isn't even something in $\Bbb R^n$, is it? It's something in $(\Bbb R^n)^2$, 'cause 2-forms take in two arguments
It's not something in $\Bbb R^n$, it's something on $\Bbb R^n$
It's a $(n - 2)$-plane field.
Just like vector fields but stick a plane at each point
A plane with a maginitude
A little circle I guess
15:25
Well you don't always have a inner product imposed on you, unlike R^n
So when I integrate a surface over a 2-form (which I assume is what's happening next chapter), I shouldn't think of it like integrating it over a 2-plane field
but rather a vector field (in $\Bbb R^3$), or I guess an $n-2$-plane field
Still, though, how do I go from the 2-form to the vector field?
Oh, no, integration of a 2-form is integrating it over a 2-plane field
That doesn't have to do anything with the correspondence between forms and plane fields
OK so I'm still confused
Shall I explain the general perspective?
Sure
I mean, $dx\wedge dy$ is a function, right? How do I go from a function to a plane field?
15:32
Ok, maybe I'll answer that first. $dA = dx \wedge dy$ is a function on the space of 2-plane fields.
It eats a plane at the point $(x, y)$, spanned by vectors $\vec{v}$ and $\vec{w}$
And spits out $\det[v_1, w_1; v_2, w_2]$ I think
So when you say, integrate $dA$ over a domain $D \subset \Bbb R^2$
Wait, the choice of $\vec v$ and $\vec w$ should matter, no?
Or only insofar as their magnitudes
If they're unit vectors, does it not matter which ones we choose?
Hm, I guess not
I think $\iint_D dA$ means integral of $dA(e_1, e_2)$ over $D$
@AkivaWeinberger Yeah, that determinant is the volume of the parallelogram they span after all
the purpose of category theory is to show that what is trivial is trivially trivial
@BalarkaSen what do you think?
15:39
I think I want a chocolate.
That's more important than category theory.
Wait no hold on
We care about the angle between them
We're essentially projecting $v$ and $w$ onto the $xy$ plane and taking the determinant of their projections
Well, $v$ and $w$ are already elements of $T_{(x, y)} \Bbb R^2$
The tangent space of R^2 at (x, y)
I mean they are tangent vectors after all.
OK?
In any case, I think it makes sense for me to think of $v$ and $w$ as perpendicular unit vectors
And they define a plane, or I'll think of them as defining a small unit circle in the plane they span
Then, I project them and their unit circle onto the xy plane
15:43
Mmkay.
That unit circle is now an ellipse, whose area is probably the cosine of the angle between the planes or something
Perhaps let's verify $\int_{\varphi(D)} \omega = \int_D \varphi^* \omega$ using that intuition.
But the point is, the area of it is the value of the function $dx\wedge dy$ at $(v,w)$
And then the zero set is the set of all planes (er, planes with magnitude) perpendicular to the xy plane
And then I guess to recover the actual xy plane I can look at whatever is perpendicular to everything in the zero set?
Wait, $dA$ has no zeroes on $\Bbb R^2$.
You're thinking about forms on R^n?
I was thinking of R^3
15:46
Ahh
But I guess it'd work anywhere
Sure
That works
So plugging in $(v,w)$ into $dx\wedge dy$ is kinda like "dot producting" the plane spanned by $(v,w)$ by the plane spanned by $(\hat\imath,\hat\jmath)$
but the plane spanned by $(v,w)$ has a magnitude determined by the area of the parallelogram determined by $v$ and $w$
So maybe I should think of it as dotproducting two parallelograms together
You could integrate 2-forms on non-horizontal domains in $\Bbb R^3$, though.
What do you mean by non-horizontal domains
15:51
Like, consider a map $D \subset \Bbb R^2 \to \Bbb R^3$ which has injective Jacobian (i.e., rank 2).
You could integrate $\omega$ on $\varphi(D)$
OK
My guess is,
$\int_{\phi(D)}dx\wedge dy$ is gonna be the area of the projection of $\phi(D)$ onto the $xy$ plane
Mhm, sounds right. It's $\int_D \phi^*(dx \wedge dy)$ by change of variables.
Are those two sentences linked
So it's $\int_D \det[d\phi] dx \wedge dy$, I guess
Wait, is that really area of projection of $\phi(D)$ on the xy-plane?
No, I doubt this.
It's not $\det[d\phi]$ @BalarkaSen
$d\phi$ isn't a square matrix
16:01
Oh, I mean the matrix $\partial \phi_i/\partial x, \partial \phi_2/\partial y$, right.
which is the determinant of the derivative of the projection of $\phi$ onto the $xy$ plane
Ah, makes sense.
Ok, glad that worked out
@Akiva You see how bad I am at forms? :p
Now I'm confused again, though, 'cause I thought I had it worked out why 2-forms are planes, but now I realize I have no idea what plane the form $dx\wedge dy+dz\wedge dw$ should be
Also, my phone's autocorrect freaks out whenever I start typing equations
"Yes, I know 'dxdy' isn't a word, just shut up for a moment"
On a tangent space in $\Bbb R^4$, it's zero set is given by $\det[\vec{v_1}, \vec{v_2}] + \det[\vec{v_3}, \vec{v_4}] = 0$
I'm vectorizing a function in order to avoid a big loop. In the iterative version of the function as I use it in the loop, it's quite straight forward, multiplying a 1x15 vector with 15x15 matrix.
Assuming I have 100 instances and want to compute this without a loop I have 100x15 matrix and for each of these 100 rows, I have a 15x15 matrix by which the respective row has to be multiplied. So for the latter I have a three dimensional matrix - is there an operator to perform such a computation?
16:06
@BalarkaSen Does it make sense to ask for the angle between two planes in 4-space?
I know you can always ask for the angle between lines in any dimension.
(Actual planes this time)
@Akiva I think if you have two planes spanned by $\vec{a}, \vec{b}, \vec{c}, \vec{d}$ then the angle $\theta$ between the planes is defined to be $\det(\vec{a}, \cdots, \vec{d})$ divide by $\det(\vec{a}, \vec{b})$ and $\det(\vec{c}, \vec{d})$.
This should be independent of the bases chosen
$\det(a,b)$ isn't defined though
Eh, area of the parallelogram they span, close enough
We'll just lose sign information
I’m forgetting. Is there in general a correspondence between forms and planes? In 3D there is
Well that's my question
@Akiva Yeah I'm sorry, I meant the Gram matrix.
16:11
Googles
@Semiclassical Yep.
Zero set of the form gives a plane field.
I’m vaguely remembering that the word Grassmannian has something to do with this
Nothing beyond the fact that they parameterize the space of plane fields.
> Geometrically, the Gram determinant is the square of the volume of the parallelotope formed by the vectors.
Cool
$\det(V^\top V)$ apparently
16:13
Yeah.
@BalarkaSen Right, so we still need to figure out what plane $dx\wedge dy+dz\wedge dw$ corresponds to
I just said what it is on a tangent space!
But that's not a plane
Sure it is!! Determinant is a multilinear function
To be clear let's explicitly write this out
Say (a, b, c, d) are the four vectors
If you feed it in your form
Hi chat
what's going on?
16:16
I want to know what plane the form $dx\wedge dy+dz\wedge dw$ corresponds to
I'm pretty sure this is equivalent to writing it as the wedge of two 1-forms tbh
Sorry, I'm bad. It eats two vectors (a, b)
And spits $|a_1, b_1; a_2, b_2| + |a_3, b_3; a_3, b_4|$
Incidentally, the fact that $(dx+dy)\wedge(dx-dy)$ doesn't obey the difference of squares law feels weird
So the plane is just given by setting that equal to 0, I guess
That's a bi-linear function on (a, b)
So it is a plane.
Wut
A plane is a flat 2D surface
And in this context it has a magnitude and orientation I guess
That's a flat 2D surface. You're looking at pairs of vectors $(a, b)$ satisfying $T(a, b) = 0$ for some bi-linear function $T$. If $(a, b)$ and $(c, d)$ are two such vectors, $T(a + c, b + d) = T(a, b) + T(c, d) = 0$.
16:21
@BalarkaSen ur a plane
So the zero set is closed under addition.
It's a vector subspace.
What the hell are you talking about
I'm so confused
I mean, like, a 2D subspace of $\Bbb R^4$
This sounds like a subspace of $(\Bbb R^4)^2$, no?
That's true, that's true.
OK look
So I did some Googling, and apparently the word I wanted was "bivector"
bi-vector you mean
16:32
> Not all bivectors can be generated as a single exterior product. More precisely, a bivector that can be expressed as an exterior product is called simple; in up to three dimensions all bivectors are simple, but in higher dimensions this is not the case.
> Geometrically, a simple bivector can be interpreted as an oriented plane segment, much as vectors can be thought of as directed line segments.
But bi-vectors are wedge product of vectors, not forms.
I finally understand why in a metric space we have compact iff complete and totally bounded! Should have looked up this proof a long time ago
Yeah, but you can associate 2-forms to bivector fields, no?
I guess k-forms eat k-vectors
In any case, the thing I wanted is not a simple bivector, so
I mean, I assume it isn't
So it doesn't correspond to a plane
16:34
@AkivaWeinberger 2-forms are functions on the space of bivector fields.
Look, this is a difference between V^* and V
But there's a one-to-one correspondence between 2-forms and bivector fields, no?
In subsets of $\Bbb R^n$ at least
Yes, just like there is an isomorphism between V^* and V (for f.d. V), just upto a metric.
Y'all talking bout multivectors?
Yeah we're confusing ourselves because we're doing it in R^n.
There's waaaay too many dualities on R^n
I like the fact that dot products exist
16:39
difference between 2-forms and 2-vectors is just $\wedge^{2}\mathbb{R}^{n\ast}$ vs $\wedge^{2}\mathbb{R}^{n}$
You have a linear function from $\Bbb R^n$ to $\Bbb R$, I'm like, "That's just dotting with this vector $\bf a$ over here"
Easy to think about
@Eric Akiva wanted a correspondence between 2-forms and 2-plane fields
(Which doesn't exist because, as he points out, bivectors do not correspond to planes always)
The real word is "simple bivector", as I've since learned
I guess this is kinda like how double rotations exist in 4D
16:40
well in $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ and $\mathbb{R}^{3}$ all 2-vectors are simple
but yeah in 4d ur f u c k e d
In 3D it's fine to represent rotations as planes but in 4D you can't
And you can add planes in 3D and you always get more planes
Hold on, wait, so
I can think of bivectors as rotations
and then 2-forms are bivector fields ('cause $\Bbb R^n=\Bbb R^{n*}$), so I guess 2-forms are rotations at every point?
But now I'm dizzy
that equality stresses me out
I hate these noncanonical ways you're identifying everything with everything
It's canonical in $(\Bbb R^n,\cdot)$, isn't it?
16:43
yeah
I don't need to specify a coordinate system, I just need angles and shit
for the things I've had to use $k$-vectors for it's important to have them distinguished from $k$-forms for sanity reasons
Sure but
That ^
it's breaking my mind
$k$-vector fields don't really show up if you're not gonna integrate forms in my experience
I guess I think visually and I need some sort of image in my mind for k-forms
16:46
Why not as a volume operator on k-vector fields
"Volume operator"?
Eats a k many vectors, spits bars about their volume
A$AP k-form
"Spits bars" lol
@Akiva I think visually but I like to think of k-fields as just associating volumes to k-manifolds... where we take the weighted average over the manifold weighted by the k-form
16:47
("Uh, summa lumma dumma lumma")
don't quote Eminem
I think there's a visual enough picture here, draw a submanifold, color the tangent planes, asdign numbers to those
he got Revived
he's an outcast now
Then that gives you a function on the manifold to integrate, more or less
I basically know one rap and it's that
16:48
moms spaghetti
Well, actually only the fast verse tbh
I can't give m'f'ing audiences a feeling like they're levitating :(
@MikeMiller "Color the tangent planes"?
Is $f(x)dx$ always closed?
Oh, it's exact isn't it 'cause it's just $dF$
16:53
@AkivaWeinberger The picture I have had the tangent plane for each point "shine" a little brighter than the rest of the planes in the Grassmannian at that point. To each we associate a number in any case
This is almost certainly unparseable
mb
They shine brightly if the form gives them a high rating?
it's a weighted average, that's all i got for you
Yeah
I started half-assing the description after I decided it wasn't helpful :P
Is $2xydx+x^2dy$ exact
Ah, it's $d(x^2y)$
yes closed forms on R^k are exact
@BalarkaSen since when did you become a memester ?
16:56
hahah some time ago
@GabrielRomon Have you met him
@AkivaWeinberger he was very different a few years ago
OK so this exercise, after throwing away exact bits, is asking for $\oint_C2xydy$ on a certain contour
he's degraded but improved
16:58
@MikeMiller this is basically how i picture rectifiable varifolds
@GabrielRomon Hm, whom do I blame then
Dami probably
:P
I started it but I gave epsilon to Dami's 1-2epsilon
Re: This exercise, it's not exact so I guess I'm meant to just parametrize the thingy and actually plug it in
and actually do work
So I'm not gonna finish it
(It's 8.3.16 if you're curious)
8.3. has some good ex's i haven't thought about
I like the planimeter though
Yeah I haven't done that one yet
I've also never understood planimeters
17:04
It's pretty much what you were talking about before
@MikeMiller that is an interesting way of phrasing it. Not inaccurate for sure
so $PSL(7^2)$ is generated by $\overline{\begin{bmatrix}1&1\\0&1\end{bmatrix}}$, $\overline{\begin{bmatrix}4&0\\0&1\end{bmatrix}}$, and $\overline{\begin{bmatrix}0&-1\\1&0\end{bmatrix}}$, which acts on the 1-dimensional subspaces of $V(7^2)$ labelled $\{0,1,2,3,4,5,6,\infty\}$ with cyclic notation respectively $(0123456)(\infty)$, $(0)(142)(635)(\infty)$, and $(0\infty)(16)(23)(45)$. So, this gives us an injective representation on $V(2^8)$.
I have checked that the orbit of $0+1+2+4$ is a $4$-dimensional subspace. However, how can I confirm whether the resulting representation is still injective?
PSL = Pakistan Sign Language
incidentally
who should I ask?
@Daminark u want to know the pf of structural stability
if not go to gulag
17:11
Structural stability of what?
@Daminark Oh I pinged you something here
I guess the ping didn't go through
@BalarkaSen Is that Tintin?
yeah the first book
in the land of soviets
nobody shall speak of the second book, however
Ah, maybe tonight?
For sure!
We also encountered your master theorem from Brin-Stuck in K-H
17:18
I see
It's easy to get Stuck in Brin-Stuck but reading Katok-Hasselblatt is a Hassel
Every frigging dynamics textbook you see a bad pun coming in
I don't remember puns in mine. What did yours have?
I just wrote them down!
not intentional puns, just puns on the names of the authors lol
Hirsch-Pugh is just Hirsch with the readers
@BalarkaSen There's an exercise that says, if a loop intersects itself finitely many times and doesn't hit the origin, then [the integral that determines the winding number] is always an integer
($\frac1{2\pi}\int_C\frac{-ydx+xdy}{x^2+y^2}$)
Why do we care that it intersects itself finitely many times? Is it just to make the exercise easier?
I think so, yes.
Well
I'm worried about things like the Hawaiian earring
Yeah that causes problems
@Akiva
It's not immediately clear to me how to prove the integral definition of winding number can deal with computing the winding number of the loop traversing the Hawaiian earring.
17:40
@BalarkaSen That hits the origin
Also, sorry, my internet died
I know. Just translate it so that it doesn't.
But yeah, I see how he wants us to do it - use the self-intersections to break it into finitely many pieces, each of which is homotopic/homologous to a circle
Yes, exactly.
Well, after making it transverse to itself if you want to be super-rigorous
But yeah bottom line every intersection looks like an "X" after making it self-transverse
If, instead, he said it alternates between the positive $x$-axis and the negative $x$-axis finitely many times, that would make it easier as well
And that's always true anyway
17:43
('Cause it's exact on the plane minus the positive y-axis, and its exact on the plane minus the negative y-axis)
With the finite intersections thing it breaks the plane in an unbounded part and a finite number of bounded parts
('cause it's $d(\arctan(y/x))$, as he shows in an earlier example, so you can mess with the output range of the arctangent)
It's exact on the complement on the negative reals on an appropriate branch, sure.
So I guess an alternative way to do it is to count the number of oriented intersections with the negative real axis
Sorry, my internet is still bad
I'm back
If it hits the negative real axis $n$ times, order it using the order on the reals by $p_1 < p_2 < \cdots < p_n$. If $p_i$ and $p_{i+1}$ are two consecutive points with opposite oriented intersection w/ the negative real axis, cut the loop off at those points and cap them off by lines to cancel them
17:50
Nah there should be a way to do this without caring about orientations of intersections
I knew this at one point
Trying to remember
Do it for all points so that finally every point has +ve oriented intersection
Or all -ve
you don't need to do this to prove it's an integer, anyway. it's a sum of $\pm 1$'s
We don't know that it hits the negative real axis finitely many times, only that it alternates between the two rays finitely many times
to do it in full generality
Oh, OK. So you break it into finitely many pieces, on each of which it either only hits the +ve $x$-axis or only hits the -ve $x$-axis
i.e. on each piece it doesn't hit one of the rays
And then on each piece it's contained in either $\Bbb R^2\setminus[0,\infty)$ or $\Bbb R^2\setminus(-\infty,0]$
and it's exact on both of those things (mess with the range of the arctangent in the $d(\arctan(y/x))$ thing)
@AkivaWeinberger That's easily fixed, I think. Make it transverse to the x-axis.
Then it hits the x-axis at a discrete set
If it's not finite, you'd have an infinite discrete subset of [0, 1]
Which is bull
I don't need your transversiness here
(Infinite compact discrete…)
Hello. Can I consider $\mathbb R$ as a closed interval?
17:58
Sure, it's an interval because it's $(-\infty,\infty)$ and it's closed because that's how topologies work
Sure, I'm not trying to find the most elementary proof
Yeah but I am
I want to give an example for an unbounded, continuous function on a closed interval. And the only thing that comes to my mind is some function on the whole of $\mathbb R$.
Ok thanks!
In any case now you just have this telescoping sum if you do things mod 1 ('cause the two potential functions are equal mod 1), so mod 1 it's zero, or whatever
so it's an integer @BalarkaSen

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