$C_{1}\subset C_{2}... $. So
$\bigcup\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} C_{k}=(0,1]$
> $\bigcap\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} C_{k}=\phi$
suppose on contrary $x\in \bigcap\limits_{k=1}^{\infty} C_{k}$
$x\in C_{k} \forall k \in \mathbb N$
$ 0<x<\frac{1}{k} k \in \mathbb N$