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23:00
just not topology
@TedShifrin those meant as Review , but ill Watch yours as well :D
@LeakyNun because they are not shrinking to 0 but are just having their maximum value at same value of y
Strang is just computations and he's ridiculously rambling ...
I already told you that you need linear algebra some time ago
Is $\sin(2)$ in closed form? What about $J_0(2)$?
23:00
in fact ill just Watch yours ><
@Semiclassical by "closed form" we mean elementary functions
I don't believe it, @Leaky.
@TedShifrin I gave you a graph...
trust the computation
Yeah Kasmir you'll want to learn serious linear algebra. And I mean for example, the bit that I saw from having audited the class used Jordan Normal Form
Okay. What defines elementary?
23:01
I'm doing calculus. The hell with the graph.
@MatheinBoulomenos yes I know , did not forget that, i asked you the question about what Products between the ones you mentioned, leaky took it as general question
Oh, you stated the problem incorrectly, Leaky. spank hard
@MatheinBoulomenos so now Ted told me direct Product is important, and i asked what else " between the Products" :D
You said the minimum for $f(x)=a^x-x$ was at $0$.
13 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@TedShifrin find $a$ such that $x \mapsto a^x-x$ has minimum at $0$
23:01
That is NOT what your picture is doing.
That is crap, Leaky.
y=0.... not x=0...
sorry
@TedShifrin Ted do I need to Watch the integral parts too ? or i jump to linear algebra directly?
@Kasmir: Just watch linear algebra stuff.
23:02
because you mixed those up in a hard way :D
ok ill find where they start on the list
linear algebra is an integral part of the course
@Mathein kek
integral part means?
(My point just being that the division of special functions into elementary and non-elementary is usually just a matter of convention)
The easy stuff at the beginning you can skip, Kasmir. You want mostly chapter 4 and 9.
23:03
thanks Ted! :D
am looking now
@Ted do I need to learn symplectic geometry first before doing Kähler manifolds?
No, @Mathei. I sure didn't.
(I say mostly because there’s certainly a difference between, say, e^x vs erf(x) vs some Painleve transcendent)
@Ted I see, thanks
@TedShifrin just to be sure, i should start at lecture 31 right?
23:05
blah blah blah special functions blah blah
@TedShifrin titled rank and consistency
minimum occurs when $a^x \ln a - 1 = 0$, i.e. $x = \ln_a\left(\frac{1}{\ln a}\right)$
You should figure out what you know and what you don't. Well, echelon form stuff and general solutions of inhomogeneous equations came before that.
There will be more stuff way at the end (eigenvalues, vectors, etc.).
@TedShifrin are those enough?
And some stuff on quadratic forms in chapter 5.
23:06
Is the Kähler metric on a smooth projective complex variety canonical or it just some existence result? It's really intriguing that an algebraically defined object has such a rich geometric structure
If you say the, we presume it's the one coming from $\Bbb P^n$, @Mathei.
There are Kähler manifolds that are not, however, projective.
And the embedding might or might not be isometric. But if you don't specify, we assume it's induced ...
$\frac1{\ln a} = \ln_a\left(\frac{1}{\ln a}\right)$
@TedShifrin I got them :D the videos dont show chapters >< but ill look at them all and see what is needed, btw they can be watched without loss of continuity right? like if i skip the analysis part
$\ln \ln a = -1$
$\ln a = -1/e$
$a = e^{-1/e}$
aha
Oh of course, duh. We just need a Kähler metric on projective space and then restrict that. Okay that makes it less mysterious
23:09
Yeah, so, @Leaky, it is correct, but I don't see any way to solve for $a$. I think Desmos just did it numerically.
@TedShifrin I just did it
$\ln_a\left(\frac{1}{\ln a}\right) = \frac1{\ln a}\ln\left(\frac{1}{\ln a}\right)$ was the key observation
The critical point is $x=-\log_a(\log a)$.
does one need spectral theorem for rep theory?
or complex inner product for that matter
@KasmirKhaan how strong are you with complex numbers?
Complex inner products, I know are important for a certain "averaging trick" you do
So $a^x = 1/\log a$.
23:12
@LeakyNun i dont understand the question , but i took complex analysis
@KasmirKhaan ah
Setting that equal to $x=-\dfrac{\log\log a}{\log a}$ yields $\log\log a = -1$.
And that, in turn, yields $a=e^{1/e}$. That's easier than the stuff you're doing, Leaky.
There's no hermitian metric on the sphere, @Mathei. Watch out.
@TedShifrin thanks
Oh I remember now @Leaky
oh yeah, of course
23:14
@Daminark what is it
@KasmirKhaan find a maximal open subset of $\Bbb C$ wherein $z \mapsto \ln z$ is continuous
Let b=log(a). Then the above becomes e^(bx)=1/x —> bx e^(bx) = b -> bx= W(b)...bleh
So let's say $\rho:G\to GL(V)$ is a representation, you call it unitary if $V$ has an inner product such that $\langle v,w\rangle = \langle \rho(g)v, \rho(g)w \rangle$ for any $g\in G$ and any $v,w\in V$
@LeakyNun leaky I got algebra stuff to do -.-
@LeakyNun we use Log z not ln
I shouldn’t do algebra on an empty brain
@LeakyNun and that need to be defined where it make sense :D
23:16
Now for any finite dim rep of $G$, you can find such an inner product by letting $(v,w) = \frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g\in G} \langle \rho(g)v, \rho(g)w\rangle$
@Semiclassical take something sweet , it will boost ur energy :D
also Brains need glucos
Where $\langle | \rangle$ is any inner product on $V$
It’ll have to settle for fructose, I’ve got some fruit
haha
let G be a Group s.t all subgroups of G are normal in G, for a,b in G prove that ba = a^j b for some j
this is easy unless am missing soemthing
@Daminark I see
23:19
bab' = a^j , because of the normality of all subgroups
a^j has to be in a normal subgroup call it A
and we conjugating by b
This is useful because if $V$ is a unitary G-rep and $W$ is some invariant subspace, then $W^{\perp}$ is also invariant
@Daminark you have heavy notation problems
you used 3 notations for the same thing
any handsome person saw what i just wrote?
Leaky, you're in no position to complain, after confusing domain and range.
@TedShifrin :'(
23:20
Wait what did I do? Just for general reference?
@Daminark you used $\langle , \rangle$, $(,)$, and $\langle \mid \rangle$ for inner product
Well they're different inner products
Yeah, it looks like Demonark was being quite careful. Not that I wish to defend him.
I use $\langle | \rangle$ for $\langle v,w\rangle$ when I'm just denoting the inner product without any input because the comma just doesn't look too nice
Why?
It looks fine to me.
23:22
$\langle \cdot , \cdot \rangle$
Your notation looks too much like bra-ket notation.
now it looks like a penguin
I'm not too familiar with bra-ket notation but yeah I dunno, some vague shit sense of aesthetic I guess?
@Daminark nice trick
Whatever the case, the thing about using parentheses was a very deliberate choice, since you started with one and got another
Yeah I think it's called Weyl's averaging trick
You apparently can do it on compact groups by integration but I'm gonna let someone who actually knows math answer that
23:24
why is it necessary to divide by $|G|$?
to get the right scaling properties
it won't be an inner product otherwise
That's not right. Any positive multiple of an inner product is an inner product.
exactly
Oh whoops
That's actually a good point then, :thinking:
oh yeah, brainfart
23:26
Damn. What's the world coming to. First Mathei defends me. Then I defend Demonark. Then I defend Leaky. I resign.
what's wrong with a world of mutual-defence?
@TedShifrin you cant quit now Before you defend or be defended by kasmir
2
@Daminark more like, :thonking:
@MatheinBoulomenos what's a spectrum?
I might guess that it has to do with when you try to generalize this trick to Haar measure? Otherwise nothing comes to mind
in algebraic topology or in algebraic geometry or in functional analysis?
spectrum can mean different things
23:28
@MatheinBoulomenos linear algebra
just the set of eigenvalues
wat
@Daminark or else the sum will not converge when you take it to infinity, I guess
the $\frac1{|G|}$ is just $\mathrm dx$
if the group happens to be a manifold
No, it's $dx/\text{vol}$.
But yeah so if $V$ is a unitary G-rep and $W$ is an invariant subspace, then $W^{\perp}$ is as well, so to prove that every finite-dim complex $G$-rep (where $G$ is a finite group) is completely reducible, all you'd need to establish the existence of an invariants subspace $(V^G?)$, do this averaging trick to show that this is a unitary $G$-rep under the right inner product, and then induct
hi @TedShifrin @Daminark
@MatheinBoulomenos
23:31
Hi @Adeek
Demonark, @Mathei: I think the normalization really only matters when you want to average things and make sure they're in the same "homotopy" (or cohomology) class.
hi Karim
@TedShifrin I was visiting with my analysis prof he told me I have pretty good ideas but I tend to overcomplicate things lol
You sometimes get confuzled and don't see the forest for the trees, yes, Karim.
yeah
@Daminark I won't try to imply that I know math, but yeah it works out for compact groups in the same way, you just replace the sum by an integral and do the same thing
23:34
@Mathei, Demonark: Continuing ... there's always a unique left-invariant metric on a Lie group ... unique up to positive scalars.
Does Haar measure fit in this somewhere?
Let $\rho : G \to GL(V)$ be a unitary representation. Let $W$ be a subspace of $V$ such that $\rho(g)W = W$ for all $g \in G$. Let $w' \in W^\perp$ and $g \in G$. Then, for all $w \in W$, $\langle \rho(g)w', w \rangle = \langle w', \rho(g)^{-1} w \rangle = 0$, so $W^\perp$ is also invariant.
Haar measure = left- (or right-) invariant measure on a Lie group ... but it makes sense more generally
Does this look right? @Daminark @TedShifrin
23:35
@Ted I'm not too familiar with how cohomology comes up here, but it sounds reasonable that it's a topological question if anything? Since I'm not seeing why the algebra forces that. Also that's nifty about the Lie group metric
@Mathein so I guess my question would then be, why do we require compact instead of finite measure?
You can run into that kind of stuff in physics, such as when you want to do generalized coherent states
compact = finite measure for the Haar measure
Dumb question: If $V$ is a vector space that is a topological vector space with respect to some topology $\tau$, will $V$ also be a TVS with respect to any topology finer than $\tau$?
Oh... Okay that makes sense. I need to learn harmonic analysis tbh
Yeah, that looks right, Leaky.
23:37
@TedShifrin thanks
Though it’s not a standard topic
@user193319 no. $\Bbb R$ with the discrete topology is not a topological vector space, since scalar multiplication is not continuous
@TedShifrin for $\int_{-a}^a [\sqrt{(a^2 - x^2)}]$, I should set $a=sin x$ then?
45 mins ago, by Ted Shifrin
@Trey: Think of what that integral represents — area of what?
that's the best method
@MatheinBoulomenos Shite! Thanks for the response.
23:39
@Trey: You can — but you mean $x=a\sin\theta$. And if you need an antiderivative, you should do that. But if you want that integral, you should use your brain instead, as I suggested an hour ago.
> you should use your brain instead
damnnnn savage af
Sometimes thinking is harder than proceeding mechanically.
But I don't like being ignored. :P
That's why Alessandro says hi to me, whether he wants to or not.
what if he doesn't
k e k
23:41
why does herstein uses A(G) instead of S_G
the Group of permutations?
does the letter A stand for something ?
@KasmirKhaan because it's the automorphism group of the set G with no structure
automorphism
Something's not right there, Kasmir. There's no reference to $n$.
oh right ><
@TedShifrin lol come on it's clearly understood
Oh yeah, sure.
23:42
hmm so the Group of permutations is the Group of automprphisms?
Automorphisms of the set ... yes.
but i thought aut (G) is a subgroup of that
1 min ago, by Leaky Nun
@KasmirKhaan because it's the automorphism group of the set G with no structure
@KasmirKhaan that's when G is a group
23:43
There were zillions of reasons I never liked Herstein. Although there were a few good exercises (and some ridiculous ones).
iam doing it for exercies ><
what do you mean ridiculous?
DF had no hard ones
I mean hard and not (to me) interesting in any way.
Herstein's got a soft spot in my heart, it was fun enough, though it did get me thinking about permutations in the $x(f)$ sense
well kasmir is lost by the aut of G busness as a set
Which people seem to not do anymore, so that threw me off a bit when I kept multiplying cycles and getting them wrong
23:45
Oh, gotta love functions on the right. NOT.
need to put that into my head
i also hate that
functions looks silly on the right
@KasmirKhaan do you know what automorphism means abstractly?
we should write from right to left that way
(I will say, I do see a case for replacing the way things currently work with that, it just feels more natural)
well i thought i knew leaky
23:46
(But I never heard of anyone other than Herstein do it like that so I'd recommend against learning it that way)
because what i had in mind was the bijectiive mappings
@KasmirKhaan all of them?
or in other Words what i mean is
be specific
an isomorphism from G to itself
1-1 onto hom, from G to G
23:47
@Daminark gotta love $f \circ g$ being $A \xrightarrow g B \xrightarrow f C$ in the "right" way
but without structure
@KasmirKhaan right, so an automorphism is a bijective map that preserves structure
how would we make sense of automorphism as sets?
@KasmirKhaan no!
23:47
5 mins ago, by Leaky Nun
@KasmirKhaan because it's the automorphism group of the set G with no structure
did I say automorphism as set?
I said automorphism group
of the structureless G
automorphisms always form a group
58 secs ago, by Leaky Nun
@KasmirKhaan right, so an automorphism is a bijective map that preserves structure
and if there's no structure, then all bijective maps are permitted
that's why you get S_G
aha
neat
so we get all the permuations that way
of G
@Kasmir: Someone just asked a question on main you should figure out. Suppose $A$ is an $n\times n$ matrix satisfying $A^2 = I$. Prove that $A$ is diagonalizable.
okay :D
@TedShifrin $\sqrt{A^2} = \sqrt{I} = I$, so $A=\pm I$ :P
23:51
Leaky should make sure he knows how to do it, too.
well I don't even know if I know how to do it
I'm amused that DonAntonio (who has almost 150K rep on here) posted a wrong answer.
high reps mean nothing these days
there are some high-rep users who post basically nonsense
CRUDE has seen many
It comes from doing stuff way too quickly. But there's no excuse for someone like that.
I'd like to believe my rep means something.
sup nerdoids
23:53
@TedShifrin sure it does
I just mean, not every high-rep user is good
@MatheinBoulomenos Okay. How about this. Suppose that $V$ is some vector space, and let $f : M_n(\Bbb{C}) \to V$ be some map, where $M_n(\Bbb{C})$ is the TVS of all $n \times n$ matrices. Define on $V$ the largest/finest topology with respect to which $f$ is continuous. Will $V$ also be a TVS with respect to this topology?
Ted not only it means something, it also underrated :D
@EricSilva inf nerd
because you should get upvotes for the answers u put ( more than u getting )
His excuse (after he removed his wrong answer) is that he was too busy in private chat. I have been known to be stooopid, too, so I'll give him a break.
23:53
donno why tho ppl dont get them upvoted ._.
Yeah that's my question, if you're a high rep user, presumably people saw the answer, read it over, felt it was correct, and then upvoted
well tbh i really forgot how to do it
._.
I think it's a lot like referring of journal articles and NSF grants. I think often big-name people get treated better than they should, just because of their big names.
@user193319 $f$ is any function? then I don't see why it should be TVS. if $f$ is just constant, then the finest topology which makes it continuous is the discrete topology
@Kasmir: I'm not sure you know how to do it. But this kind of thing is important for rep theory. You need to understand eigenspaces.
23:56
@MatheinBoulomenos Hmm...Okay. It isn't constant map, but it is a linear map.
the map which is constant $0$ is linear
But I am saying that $f$ isn't constant.
@TedShifrin i ll put that in my notes :D not i got linear algebra , eigenspaces and direct Product , thanks Ted ! il make sure to read them Before january
Add the hint for the problem: Show that the (two) eigenspaces of the matrix span $\Bbb R^n$. @Kasmir
Be careful about that though, there isn't much time and you can only go for so long on a superficial understanding, which you may get if you go a bit too quickly
23:58
I think the answer is yes iff $f$ is surjective
@TedShifrin Done ! thanks again :)

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