« first day (2696 days earlier)      last day (2622 days later) » 

23:03
This will be the last time I ask today:
do any of you guys know the calculus of variations?
(why have people been starring my posts here? Lol)
3
you have gained in popularity, Clarinet.
I know some calculus of variations, yeah. But there's a lot of different aspects.
So, under this adjustment, the pdf of $X$ independent of $Y$ is given by $P(X) : \Bbb{R}^2 \to [0,1]$ and the pdf of Y independent of X is given by $P(Y) : \Bbb{R}^2 \to [0,1]$. The quesiton then becomes an optimisation problem of minimising the eucledian metric of points X and Y subjected to the constraint that the correlation of X and Y is maximised.

The dream's version has P(X) and P(Y) having some asymmetric lorentzian shape, but I think it isn't hurt to generalise from that into arbitrary continuous pdfs.
This, in short, is the problem:
23:06
Yo
Let $p: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}_{\geq 0}$ be such that $\int_{\mathbb{R}}p = 1$. Let
$$H(p) = -\int_{\mathbb{R}}p\log p\text{.}$$
We define $p(x)\log[p(x)] = 0$ whenever $p(x) = 0$.
Consider the problem
> $$\max H(p) \text{ subject to }\int_{\mathbb{R}}p = 1\text{.}$$
yoyo @Eric
How's it going
I wish I knew something about the calc of variations, but I know... nothing. All I keep reading about are these Euler-Lagrange equations
All that is is Lagrange multipliers in function space.
23:07
Yeah, I figured that out as much
When I saw that, I thought, hmm, Lagrange multipliers
Just think about it in terms of basic calculus. Suppose you're at a maximum point $p$. What do you know about $H(p+tq)$ for all $q$ with $\int (p+tq)=1$?
Note that you're moving in a particular direction now, as $t$ is the only parameter varying
@Eric Hey
Hey @Eric, @Ted, @Balarka!
23:10
Well, $H(p+tq) \leq H(p)$... and also, $H^{\prime}(p+tq) \neq 0$
Vsauce Michael here
So the directional derivative of $H$ in every direction $q$ subject to the constraint must be $0$.
@Clarinetist That's true. So what if you take $f(t) = H(p + tq)$. What can you say about $f(t)$?
Oh, Ted is being less Socratic than me
LOL, for a change, yes.
But yeah $f'(t) = 0$ as $t = 0$
23:11
DogAteMy!
You got a hat!
I have 6 hats :P
Let me process that quick
(or not so quick)
I was wearing my menorah hat, but I got tired of it (and isn't Chanukah over?).
23:13
I am super wearied out after struggling with $\chi^2$ tests
How do you get these hats?
@BalarkaSen $\chi^2$ tests are useless IMO
So, something exiting happened recently:
Balarka and MikeM used to work very hard for hats in years past. I never did. They just show up when they show up.
Yes, I'm a stats grad student who said that
23:14
They finally duct-taped three space rockets together to get a bigger rocket
@Clarinetist O:
It's gonna fly for the first time somewhere in January
I suppose the tape is made of something interesting
what is the point of SpaceX lol
23:15
The thing that bugs me about hypothesis testing in general is that people who use it collect some data and do some $p$-hacking. VOILA, $p < 0.05$, PUBLISH!
they just do these weird things
They put up satellites
and people pay them for it
Okay, here's the thing
They also resupply the ISS on occasion
Clarinet: Back to calculus of variations before I leave.
23:15
I understand that the directional derivative of $H$ in every direction $q$ subject to the constraint must be $0$
Now what?
Well, $p+tq$ satisfies the constraint.
@BalarkaSen For its first flight, they don't want to put anything important on it in case it explodes, so it won't be carrying a satellite
So what does that mean about $q$?
@AkivaW I see
So, instead, it will send "the silliest thing they can think of" to interplanetary space -
which, apparently, is the CEO's car.
So, assuming all goes according to plan, there will soon be a Tesla orbiting the sun
in an elliptical orbit tangent to Earth's and Mars's orbits
@BalarkaSen In all seriousness, it wasn't as simple as duct-taping them together. Apparently there's some engineering challenges that come with having 27 rocket engines firing next to each other at the same time. They've been planning it for a while, which is why I'm so excited at the fact that it's finally real.
(It's called the Falcon Heavy if you're curious)
23:20
I figured
@Clarinet: So have you figured out that $\int q = 0$, i.e., $q\perp 1$?
@TedShifrin Yeah, I was thinking that, but I couldn't justify to myself why
Because $\int p = 1$ and $\int (p+tq) = 1$ for all (small) $t$.
Ah, that's what I thought, but it seemed too simple
In other news, I was in my school play and my mother broke her leg
23:22
We don't need a floating tesla to orbit the sun to potentially collide to. However, it seems that SpaceX are finally launching, which is indeed exciting as these private companies will be supporting the space exploration stuff just in case the US government try to do something very bad to NASA that close it down
@Akiva Oh dear
(She was turning and braking too hard to avoid a car and the bike went out from under her)
But now compute the directional derivative of $H$ in the direction of $q$. You should find that $q\perp$ some functional thing in $p$.
I'm glad nothing worse happened, DogAteMy.
@Secret "SpaceX are finally launching" They've launched 17 rockets this year
I mean, my condolences to your mom, but it could have been scarier worse.
23:23
hasn't thought of directional derivatives for at least 7 years ... I think I still remember the definition
I hope she recovers fast
Thank you. Me too
But it'll probably be several months
Just take $d/dt\Big|_{t=0} H(p+tq)$, Clarinet.
Naturally. My broken finger took like a month to recover
Nowhere close to a broken leg.
@TedShifrin Oh, easy enough. $\left. qH^{\prime}(p+tq)\right|_{t=0} = qH^{\prime}(p)$
23:24
I had a sprained ankle that took something like 9 months to get back to normal. But I've been told that sprained ankles are worser than broken ankles.
@Secret Might be more than 17, actually, not sure. Another is scheduled for tomorrow, putting some Iridium NEXT satellites into space
Um, no, @Clarinet.
The most recent launch was a successful ISS resupply mission
You need to write things with the integral :P
@TedShifrin Oh man. Hah.
23:25
@AkivaWeinberger I see, I am massively out of date in the space development, lol
Let's see
Yeah sprains are bad. I was initially diagnosed with a sprain, but it turned out it's broken too
$$H(p+tq) = \int_{\mathbb{R}}(p+tq)\log(p+tq)$$
so
assuming we can interchange differentiation and integration
Of course ... This is applied stuff :P
I should simplify first...
23:27
No, you should just differentiate with product rule.
Oh duh
$$H^{\prime}(p+tq) = \int_{\mathbb{R}}[(p+tq)\cdot\dfrac{q}{p+tq}+q\log(p+tq)]$$
What's the derivative at $t=0$?
@anon I got a similar question to the one I asked before. If you want a random subset of ${1,...,n}$ with probability proportional to $k(k-1)$ if the size of the subset is $k$, you must have the probability function $\frac{k(k-1)}{2^{n-2}n(n-1)}$.
oops
$$H^{\prime}(p)=\int_{\mathbb{R}}\log(p)$$
Your notation isn't quite right. As Balarka said, you're differentiating $f(t) = H(p+tq)$.
So no derivatives of $H$.
23:29
this is kind of similar to picking a subcommittee of any size of a committee of length $n$ and then choosing 2 distinguished members out of this subcommittee
That's not right, Clarinet. Come on.
Ugh -_- I'm terrible at fast calculations. Let me give this another try
$$f(t) = H(p+tq)$$
You need a $q$ in the answer under the integral, too, kiddo.
so $f^{\prime}(t) = H^{\prime}(p+tq) \cdot q$
Please don't write $H'$. You don't know what that is.
What you were writing above is basically right (with the integral).
23:31
Oh... I completely get why $H^{\prime}$ is bad notation now -_-
$$f^{\prime}(t)=\int_{\mathbb{R}}\log(p)q$$
NO ... First, it's $f'(0)$, not $f'(t)$ ... Second, you lost a term.
Wow, why am I being so sloppy....
shrugs
hey guys.
Serves me right for helping :P
23:34
again
hi again, @LucasH
$$f^{\prime}(0) = \int_{\mathbb{R}}[q\log(p)+q]$$
Hey @LucasHenrique!
what's up
hi @LucasHenrique
OK, so that has to be $0$ for all $q$ with $\int q = 0$, i.e., $q\perp 1$. What do you conclude, Clarinet?
I think I said hi to @Antonios already, but, if not ... hello.
23:35
Hey @Antonios!
So... we have $$\int_{\mathbb{R}}q\log(p)+0 = 0$$
hence $$\int_{\mathbb{R}}q\log(p) = 0$$
Every year semester this happens... I get sick the day after my finals are done.
So apparently argument principle is a thing for poles as well
I know the above is an inner product (assuming $q$ and $\log p$ continuous)... but I'm not sure how I can make use of the $q \perp 1$ assumption
Isn't that one the one where you integrate the logarithmic derivative or something and the answer ends up being $N-P$?
$2\pi i(N-P)$. I was close.
23:40
Yeah
So the way my complex prof did it was rather different
Right, 'cause you're essentially tracing out the value of the multifunction $\ln(f(z))$
So let $f$ be an analytic function whose domain contains a disk $D$
Let $K = f(\partial D)$ and let $a\in \mathbb{C}-K$
23:41
@Antonios-AlexandrosRobotis this happened to me too
@TedShifrin I end up with $$\int_{\mathbb{R}}q\log(p) = 0$$ Is there something else I'm missing?
it's like my body was hanging on and the floodgates opened right when i finally had time to relax
If $z$ goes around $0$ then $\ln(z)$ increases by $2\pi i$. In a sense, if $z$ goes around $\infty$ ("makes a big circle in the wrong direction") then $\ln(z)$ decreases by $2\pi i$.
Then $f^{-1}(a)\cap D$ counted with multiplicity should be the winding number of $f(\partial D)$ around $a$
If $z$ goes around a root of $f(z)$, then $f(z)$ goes around $0$ and $\ln(f(z))$ increases by $2\pi i$
If $z$ goes around a pole of $f(z)$, then $f(z)$ "makes a big circle in the wrong direction" and $\ln(f(z))$ decreases by $2\pi i$
23:44
Hmm, maybe you can formalize that using residue theorem?
Like, let's say $f$ has a pole of order $k$ at $a$
Then you should be able to write $f(z) = (z-a)^{-k}g(z)$ where $g$ is analytic
I imagine you take $\int f'/f\ dz$ and do some sort of change of variables
So like if $w=f(z)$ then $dw=f'dz$ and it's $\int 1/w\ dw$
So the only question is, what happens to the path of integration
And the answer should be something like what I outlined above
Then $f'(z) = -k(z-a)^{-k-1}g(z) + (z-a)^{-k}g'(z)$
finally seeing something on chat that is not CW complex (or other incomprehensible) stuff
2
Wait, are there restrictions on how the change of variables works?
^^ I starred that
23:46
What these two people are doing are topology
So $\frac{f'(z)}{f(z)} = \frac{-k}{z-a} + \frac{g'(z)}{g(z)}$
Argument principle is 10/10 topology
Or is it only things like ${\rm blah}(w)=z$ ($w$ being the new variable) that you have to worry about
@BalarkaSen It seemed like you were able to follow what Ted was telling me. Do you know what I'm missing?
(Cont'd) Probably
23:47
Topology is comprehensible, algebraic topology and algebraic groups is not so
So that does it @Akiva
It will be uncountably long while later before I can make them comprehensible to me
@Daminark Why do we know that $g'(z)/g(z)$ have no poles?
@Secret The boundary of a ball is a sphere. The boundary of a sphere is the empty set. Thus, the $\rm boundary^2$ of a ball is the empty set.
Well, when we write $f(z) = (z-a)^{-k}g(z)$, where $k$ is the order of the pole, we know $g(a) \ne 0$
Now you know the most important idea behind homology
@Daminark Ah right
So that does it
but you never used the fact that it's $(\ln(f))'$
23:49
Yup
the logarithmic derivative
I didn't touch the log at all, no, just computed it out really
which makes it seem like magic
The main reason why it works is that it's the logarithmic derivative
math is the magic of logical ideas
It's magic until you understand it, otherwise, it is magical but understandable
23:51
Neither of those sentences make sense in this context I think
Yeah that's fair, my proof disguised the topology going on
@Clarinet: Sorry. My landlord dropped in.
@Daminark Like, you know how $fg$ has $N_f+N_g$ roots and $P_f+P_g$ poles
Hi
(where $f$ has $N_f$ roots etc)
23:52
I am curious, what's your background Akiva?
You should have $\int q[\log p + 1] = 0$, @Clarinet.
For all $q\perp 1$. So what do you conclude?
So if you do the arg principle on $fg$ you should get $(N_f-P_f)+(N_g-P_g)$, the sum of doing it on the two thingies individually
Akiva: It's more generalised to all maths, not just this result. Recall all those first encounters when people taught us who to solve problems by doing nothing, how to find the best contour so we can blow the imaginary part to zero, as well other neat tricks

(and my response is mainly based on skullpatrol, as otherwise that post of mine will not exist)
which should scream "logarithms" probably
@nbro Last year of high school
yeah, it was a play on the famous Einstein quote about math :P
23:55
(and very tired at the moment, which you might be able to tell)
Oh, it looks like you're already into advanced stuff and you very well trained
as one of my best friends loves to say, DogAteMy, 'wait until you're my age!'
@TedShifrin Hmm. I'm trying to figure out what happens with the $\log p$, because clearly $\int q = 0$. looks back at directional derivative stuff
@Akiva yeah that's true, I guess I'm less comfortable with the whole "going around a loop" stuff because I'm not really too good with jumping back and forth between the picture and the formal argument
Oh. Leave it as $\int q[1+\log p] = 0$ for all $q$ with $\int q = 0$. Think $L^2$ orthogonality, as I kept hinting.
23:56
I just did Poincare's lemma in Rudin (if $d\omega=0$ then $\omega$ is the derivative of something), and I felt like the proof was horribly written
nbro: He has background on very high level stuff such as model theory, as well various analysis and geometry stuff
DogAteMy: Rudin's multivariable is horrendous. Use my book.
Daminark prefer picture free proofs
while I am opposite
We're not talking about Demonark.
Not exactly
23:57
Wait, does he?
Do you?
It's more that I'm not good at generating the pictures, so while I'm happy to see the pictorial idea of something, I'm only truly comfortable when things have been written down
@TedShifrin This can't be right... does that mean that $1+\log p = 0$?
I was going to say
Think about orthogonal complements.
23:58
any questions : ) ?
@Daminark Oh, also
How's the tooth professor @TedShifrin?
Who's the "tooth professor"? :P
LOL, thanks for asking, skull. Got a brand new spanking permanent crown at 8 AM today.
If you do it to $1/f$ you should get $P_f-N_f$, right?
The negative, 'cause poles and roots switch
23:59
Demonark: I applaud your plea for correct comma usage. Now if only we could fix apostrophes.
Cool :-)
DogAteMy: What is $d(1/f)/(1/f)$?
@TedShifrin $-df/f$
I assume

« first day (2696 days earlier)      last day (2622 days later) »