given non-negative random variables $\{X_k\}_{k \ge 1}$ (not necessarily independent) is it true that if $\frac{1}{n}\sum\limits_{k=1}^{n} X_k \overset{P}{\longrightarrow} 1$ then we also have $\frac{1}{n}\max\limits_{1 \le k \le n} X_k \overset{P}{\longrightarrow} 0$?
@DanielFischer