1. Hilbert space where the underlying set is an infinite dedekind finite set 2. Vector space where the underlying set is an infinite dedekind finite set 3. Poncaire lemma, does it hold in infinite dimensional manifolds
Hi everyone,
Is the Poincaré lemma true in infinite dimensions?
Here's a precise statement:
Let $X$ be a Banach (or maybe Hilbert) vector space, $U$ a simply connected open set in $X$. Is it true that every closed (smooth) $1$-form on $U$ is exact?
Thanks!
Are Banach manifolds (or other types of infinite-dimensional manifolds) just curiosities, or have they been utilized to prove some interesting/important results? Where do they turn up? Important examples?
@copper.hat Eh, the professor in question had some valid points imo. Her phrasing of certain statements has me iffy... but to her defense, much of the backlash is made purely of straw men.
@TobiasKildetoft (unless copper.hat meant something else) it's about a UIUC professor's statements made recently in an article. if i'm not mistaken, basically saying that the current state of math education disadvantages minority students and perpetuates white privilege
Suppose we want a predicative version of analysis (here predicative means all constructs must be provable to exist and that there exists no constructs which is not build from constructs that are already built) meaning that we can only use a subset of reals which is dense and consists of computable reals (and possibly a few irrationals that can be computed with one turing jump), is it always possible to use a subspace topology so that almost all theorems that relies on continuity will not be
affected? I think there should be a lot of topologies that can maintain the notion of continuity and some weak notion of smoothness
[More random]
Corollary chains:
(Note that whatevr I said next is not sure if it is known in the literature) Def: A corolloary chain is a countable sequence of corollaries not linked by induction such that the proof of each one relies on the result of the previous one
Write: Corollary$^n$ = Corollary of corollary of ... of corollary
Hmm... the more I'd read, the sillier it all seemed. I'll leave that at that since the kind of language involved tends to be an automatic trigger for political shitstorms :/ @copper.hat
Making good progress on my representation theory notes. Just finished up Schur's lemma and the fact that all irreps of abelian groups are $1$-dimensional
yeah, one semester. It covers some number theory (the stuff involved in RSA plus quadratic reciprocity), group theory (up to Sylow), ring theory (mainly related to unique factorization stuff), polynomials (partially also used for quadratic reciprocity)
And this year, it will end with some representation theory. It used to be Gröbner bases, but I know too little about those to feel comfortable lecturing about them when there are other good options
The lecturer before me also did representation theory, but I think he only ended up doing it one time, since last time the course ran, the lecturer was replaced about half-way through with a guy who preferred to do Gröbner bases (having written the course book which has a lot on them)
Yeah I guess in any event this class isn't supposed to cover much by way of representations
But yeah I think we might have a bit of time after Sylow. We've got 5 weeks left, we've already done basics/examples, actions, homomorphisms, quotients, like we could do Sylow next week
@Daminark So given a pair $(X, A)$ where $A \subset X$ and $x_0 \in A$ is a basepoint you can define the relative homotopy group $\pi_n(X, A, x_0)$ as follows: consider the class of all based maps $f : (D^n, p) \to (X, x_0)$ such that $f(\partial D^n) \subset A$, and define the equivalence relation $f \sim g$ if $f$ and $g$ are homotopic through a family of maps $f_t : (D^n, p) \to (X, x_0)$ such that $f_t(\partial D^n) \subset A$.
This gets a natural group structure. Namely, if $f, g : (D^n, \partial D^n, p) \to (X, A, x_0)$ are two such maps, consider $D^n \vee D^n$, wedge of two copies of $D^n$'s along a boundary point $p \in \partial D^n$ on each, and define $f \vee g : D^n \vee D^n \to X$ by setting it to be $f$ on the first copy of the wedge and $g$ on the second copy of the wedge (this is continuous because they agree on the only point of ambiguity $f(p) = g(p) = x_0$)
And finally consider $h : D^n \to D^n \vee D^n \to X$ where the first map simply quotients the equatorial $(n-1)$-dimensional subdisk of $D^n$ containing $p$. (Pinching the diameter of a 2-disk gives wedge of two 2-disks)
It's not hard to see that $h(\partial D^n) \subset A$ and $h(p) = x_0$. That means we have again a map $h : (D^n, \partial D^n, p) \to (X, A, x_0)$. The multiplication map is then defined as $[f]*[g] = [h]$
Okay so just to be sure I get this right, the reason why if $A = x_0$, then the relative homotopy group is just $\pi_n(X,x_0)$ is because if the boundary maps to a point, we have a continuous map from $D^n/S^{n-1} = S^n$ into the space, yeah?
And since the basepoint $p$ is the point that we're wedging on, you know that since both $f$ and $g$ respect it, there's no ambiguity, and its restriction to each sphere is continuous, so you're good on that note
But in general, if $A$ is bigger than a point, the maps $D^n \to X$ are allowed to be nonconstant on $\partial D^n$, as long as $f(\partial D^n)$ stays inside $A \subset X$
Associativity is just, you're wedging 3 copies of $D^n$ when you sorta factor through that construction, but it doesn't matter which 2 you wedge first since you're gonna take the wedge along $p$ anyway, at which point everything is symmetric
Identity is constant map, which is good because if you take the intermediate wedged stage where it's constant on one copy and $f$ on the other, you'd reverse engineer it to the single disk before you modded out by the equator, at which point you'd have one hemidisk correspond to what $f$ will be, the other is constant, and they agree on the equator
But now you have this hemidisk which you nullhomotope the living shit out of back to $p$, so you should be good
Well, pretty much. But remember it took some work to show the group multiplication is associative in $\pi_1(X, x_0)$. The point is even though the picture is wedging three loops in $X$ based at $x_0$, the speed of $(f * g) * h$ and $f * (g * h)$ are different. Eg in the first $f$ is traced in $1/2 \cdot 1/2 = 1/4$ of the time and in the second $f$ is traced in $1/2$ the time
But yeah the idea being, if you sorta trace a point on one of the disks to the corresponding one on the other, you just sorta take that central point that maps to the basepoint and then spread it out until it swallows the whole disk
Or I guess this is also like, reverse engineered to see that half the disk looks like the map, but then you have a symmetry about the equator, so you should be able to nicely push it back up
Yeah I see what you mean. I think if $f : D^n \to X$ is your map, the inverse is $g : D^n \to D^n \to X$ where the first map is the antipodal map on $S^{n+1}$ taking upper hemisphere to lower hemisphere, and the second is $f$
The second map $\pi_n(X, x_0) \to \pi_n(X, A, x_0)$ also has an obvious candidate: think of $\pi_n(X, x_0)$ as the relative group $\pi_n(X, x_0, x_0)$ and look at the map induced from inclusion $j: (X, x_0, x_0) \to (X, A, x_0)$ in the second component
And the map $\pi_n(X, A, x_0) \to \pi_{n-1}(A, x_0)$ that I think works is, take a map $(D^n, S^{n-1}, p) \to (X, A, x_0)$, and look at the map $(S^{n-1}, p) \to (A, x_0)$ that you get from forgetting about the first component in the triplet
Namely, literally take $[f] \in \pi_n(X, A, x_0)$ and look at $[\partial f] \in \pi_{n-1}(A, x_0)$
Just $f$ restricted to the boundary of the disk $D^n$
So the second and third map because if you map via the inclusion of x_0 in A, then even restricting the map to the sphere won't change that nullhomotopicity
True. And conversely, if $[\partial f] = 0$, then $\partial f$ is nullhomotopic as a map $S^{n-1} \to A$. That means $f$ is homotopic as a map of pairs to a map $(D^n, S^{n-1}, p) \to (X, A, x_0)$ which is constant on $S^{n-1}$. So $f$ is image of the map induced from $j$
Okay so if you are in the kernel of the first map of the next segment, you have a nullhomotopic map from the sphere into X which you can then extend because this feels like a "degree 0" thing
There, completed one of the more tricky parts given that I don't want to introduce the group algebra. I think I have managed to make it no harder than the corresponding proof using the group algebra
BTW, I think $\pi_n(X, A, x_0)$ has something to do with $\pi_n(X/A, A/A)$ but I don't know the relevant theorem (I think this is the homotopy excision theorem). There is a map $\pi_n(X, A, x_0) \to \pi_n(X/A, A/A)$ by sending $(D^n, S^{n-1}, p) \to (X, A, x_0)$ to $(D^n/S^{n-1}, S^{n-1}/S^{n-1}) \to (X/A, A/A)$
I think for CW complexes $X$ and subcomplex $A \subset X$ under some dimension conditions this map becomes an isomorphism
Hopefully we'll eventually end up learning that too
I wonder how few examples I can make do with to keep referring to in order to get examples of all the possible phenomena I cover in these notes. So far I seem to be able to make do with like 3 or 4.
@TobiasKildetoft it is true that we have $p-1\geq n$ in the last part of the exercise on Sylow theory gave me? I think I have a proof, but I'm not sure if it's right, as you would probably have asked to prove the stronger inequality if it works
[Random] I need a mathematical joke such that an at least 3 word acronym of that mathematical concept can be arbitrarily permutated and the result is still a mathematical acronym, but different
ah, that's really cool. I wonder if that $n$ is somehow related the factorization of the $q$-th cyclotomic polynomial modulo $p$. The proof I have makes me think it is
@MatheiBoulomenos $n$ is the order of $p$ mod $q$ (or vice versa)
this is related to the existence of irreducible representations of degree $n$ of the cyclic group of order $p$ over the field with $q$ elements (again, or vice versa)
My representation theory course worked only over $\Bbb C$, that's why I didn't really think about it like a rep theory problem, I formulated the argument in terms of $\Bbb F_q[x]$-modules. You're comment right now made me realize the connection between simple modules over $\Bbb K[x]$ that are annihalted by some cyclotomic polynomial and irreducible representations of cyclic groups, thanks!
One nice thing one can do if the group is $p$-solvable is use the Fong-Swan theorem
This essentially gives an ordinary characters corresponding to the Brauer character of any of these actions on such subgroups, with some control over how $p'$-elements act
There's yet so much to learn about finite group theory ... but when I learn ring theory I know that it is useful for algebraic geometry and algebraic number theory, whereas I don't really know if advanced group theory is going to help me with that (it probably is, I just can't see how right now)
@MatheiBoulomenos finite group theory in itself does tend to be a bit insular
but not entirely of course
I started out with finite groups, but I had to move to a new place when I did my PhD, and my advisor for that was more into algebraic groups, so that ended up being where I did most of my research for the PhD. Now I am splitting my time something like 50/50 between algebraic groups and higher representation theory, with a slight overlap
@TobiasKildetoft I think I read in the AMS review of Eisenbud's commutative algebra text that representation theory is relevant for algebraic geometry. But I don't know what kind of representation theory was meant exactly
Rudin defined Gamma function for $s>0$ as integral $\Gamma(s)=\int \limits_{0}^{\infty}x^{s-1}e^{-x}dx$. How to prove that $\Gamma(s)$ strictly positive function and monotone increasing? Can anyone show please a rigorous proof!
@Tobias the proof was just averaging over a projection right? Plus some general non-commutative algebra facts on equivalent definitions for semisimple modules
@MatheiBoulomenos Sure, but I won't get that far (well, except inducing the trivial representation of a subgroup since that is just a permutation representation)
So this is an general abstract algebra course? We didn't do representation theory in those at all. (Though we mentioned it when we were doing Artin-Wedderburn)
"Show that x in GF(27) has multiplicative order 26 by expressing x^3 ,x^4 ,... as quadratic polynomials in x." <-- do you think they mean by finding x^3, x^4, ... x^30 and showing they are all different, or what are they trying to ask the reader to do?
Homotopy Type Theory has been receiving a lot of hype during the last couple of years and been hailed as the most effective foundation of all Mathematics compared with Set Theory.
My question:
If HOTT is the foundation of all mathematics, will that pronounce death of Set Theory research ? or els...
What if we consider the foundation of foundation systems. I am not sure if it is well defined
Imagine a universe where type theory, set theory and other foundation systems exists as constituents. How far can that push the limit of comprehension of the nature of mathematics
I just read that Hermann Weyl used a certain type of type theory as the foundation of mathematics in his book "The Continuum" and he was able to derive calculus without the use of infinite sets. Naturally, I'm going to read it ASAP but I wanted to ask right away what it's fundamental flaws are, s...
The concept of (potential) infinity kinda exists whenever something is iterated
But it might be possible to forget about actual infinity depending on the scope of mathematics the foundation want to cover
> Blass's theorem is a very strong one indeed. If the axiom of choice does not hold then there is a vector space without a basis. It is unusual to be able and tell which vector space it is (unless assuming more, or constructing the model directly).
The proportion of the weird population in maths chat is dropping in recent months, followed by the rise of non-weird populations. If this trend continues it is expected to affect the operation of The Labs
Please someone explain why this is true here: The sum $\frac1n+\frac1m$, with least one of $\frac1n$ or $\frac1m$ less than $\epsilon/2$, must be at a distance of at least $\epsilon/2$ from $x$.
Hey, A little question, I want to know if i look from above the plane or not , how do i check it? Lets assume that Z= (2x-3y)/5 and the point is (0,0,4)
And we see that none of those are the truth table for $\neg p$. So if there's a relation its more complicated. Treat this as the base case and see if you can construct a kind of proof by induction. @Liad
@liad If you include only $\wedge$, $\vee$, and $\leftrightarrow$ then its very straightforward. $\rightarrow$ seems to be the hard part.
Please someone explain why this is true here: The sum $\frac1n+\frac1m$, with least one of $\frac1n$ or $\frac1m$ less than $\epsilon/2$, must be at a distance of at least $\epsilon/2$ from $x$.
@LeakyNun well, the most elementary proof would be writing $\sqrt{5}$ as a rational linear combination of a $\Bbb Q$-basis of $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ and deriving a contradiction (which would involve squaring things and writing rational numbers as quotient of integers with gcd 1)
But if you use a little theory, you can reduce the computation. Note that if $\sqrt{5} \subset \Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$, then $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{5}) \subset \Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ is a subfield of degree 2. Now use the Galois correspondence to compute the subfields of $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{2},\sqrt{3})$ and you can reduce the problem to showing that $\Bbb Q(\sqrt{5}) \neq \Bbb Q(\sqrt{m})$ for $m=2,3,6$
That may sound like it's more computation than the other approach, but it's actually less because the bases for $\Bbb Q (\sqrt{m})$ are smaller and it's easier to get to the contradiction
Also do you know of a way to prove that matrices operating on $\mathbb{C}^n$ have an eigenvalue without resorting to the characteristic polynomial/determinant?
@Daminark Let $f$ be a linear endomorphism on a finitely generated vector space $V$ over an algebraically closed field $K$. Consider the evaluation homomorphism $K[X] \to \operatorname{End}(V)$ that takes $X \mapsto f$. As $K[X]$ is infinite-dimensional, but $\operatorname{End}(V)$ is finite-dimensional, this map has nonzero kernel. Let $P$ be a polynomial in the kernel, then it has a factor of the form $(X-\lambda)$, now this $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $f$.